Improve your English vocabulary: Synonyms

Know your English vocabulary:

Word         Synonym    Synonym

1.abandon  -discard ,vacate

2.accord- agree ,grant

3.adversity - difficulty ,misfortune

4. affluent-  plentiful ,rich

4. aggravate - annoy ,infuriate

5. alleviate-  lighten, mitigate

6. amenable - agreeable ,favorable

7. anguish - distress, sorrow

8. apathetic-  dispirited ,lifeless

9. arrogant-  disdainful ,imperious

10.astonish- confound ,overwhelm

11. atrocious- appalling, detestable

12. augment- add, enlarge

13. avoid-  ignore, shun

14. awkward- graceless ,inept

15.baffle- confuse,  deceive

16.banal-  common, plain

17.barren-  desolate, sterile

18.berate-  criticize, disapprove

19.betray- deceive ,fool

20.bias -inclination, predisposition

21.bitter-  acrid, sour

22.blend-  combine, mix

23.bliss- happiness, joy

24.bluff- boast, feign

25.bold-  daring, fearless

26.bonus-  award, gift

27.bother-  annoy, irritate

28.brief - concise, short

29.brilliant-  clever , intelligent

30.brisk-  fast, swift

31.budget-  allot, plan

32.candid-  honest, truthful

33.caricature- cartoon, imitation

34.casual- informal, natural

35.category- classification, division

36.cease - desist, stop

37.chaotic-  disordered, messy

38.cherish - esteem, love

39.circumvent-  avoid, go around

40.commemorate-celebrate,honor

41.compensate-balance,recompense

42.competent- able, capable

43.conceive-  design, plan

44.confirmation-acknowledgement, proof

45.contradict-  deny, oppose

46.contribution-  donation, grant

47.courteous - polite, well-mannered

48.craving - desire, longing

49.credulous - confident, trustful

50.damp-  moist, wet

51.dare -challenge, defy

52.decay -decline ,rot

53.decent -honorable ,pure

54.dense -filled ,packed

55.designate -name ,select

56.detain- hold ,keep

57.disclose -announce ,reveal

58.dogma -belief ,view

59.durable -constant ,lasting

60.dwindle- abate ,diminish

61.eager -earnest, keen

62.eccentric- abnormal, idiosyncratic

63.elaborate -embellish, enhance

64.emanate- arise ,radiate

65.embezzle- purloin ,steal

66.eminent -distinguished, prominent

67.encourage- foster, induce

68.endure- last ,persist

69.essential -cultured ,learned

70.essential- basic ,necessary

71.estimate -guess ,predict

72.evaluate- appraise, judge

73.exhaust- deplete, empty

74.exhilarated -cheerful ,zestful

75.explicit- definite ,specific

76.fastidious- exacting ,particular

77.federation -alliance ,band

78.feeble -helpless ,infirm

79.fervor- intensity ,passion

80.feud- argument ,dispute

81.filth- dirt, squalor

82.flatter- compliment ,praise

83.fleet -nimble ,swift

84.frivolous- inconsequential, trivial

86.frugal- prudent ,saving

86.furious -angry ,outraged

87.generous- benevolent ,unselfish

88.genuine -actual ,real

89.glare- gleam, glisten

90.gloomy -cheerless ,dim

91.goad -provoke ,badger

92.grasp -grab ,hold

93.greed -avarice ,longing

94.guarantee- assure ,pledge

95.guile- cunning ,deceit

96.gullible -credulous, unsuspicious

97.habitual -accustomed, regular

98.handicap -disability, disadvantage

99.harass -annoy ,disturb

100.harmless- innocuous, inoffensive

101.harsh -hard ,coarse

102.hasty -abrupt ,hurried

103.haughty -arrogant ,pretentious

104.humiliate- humble ,shame

105.hygiene -cleanliness, sanitation

106.hypocrisy- duplicity ,falseness

107.ideal -goal ,perfection

108.idle- lazy ,unoccupied

109.ignorant -stupid ,unintelligent

110.illogical -incongruent, rambling

111.illustrious -eminent, famous

112.imitate -copy ,reflect

113.immense- huge ,mammoth

114.impartial -candid ,impersonal

115.impatient -anxious ,eager

116.implicate -accuse ,insinuate

117.importune- beg ,solicit

118.inadvertent -accidental ,
unintentional

119.indifferent -apathetic, disinterested

120.isolate -detach ,quarantine

121.jargon -argot ,slang

122.jovial- genial ,merry

123.judge- estimate ,referee

124.justification -excuse ,reason

125.juvenile -adolescent ,immature

126.keen -clever ,observant

127.label -brand ,classify

128.labor -toil ,work

129.lead -direct ,proceed

130.lean- slim ,thin

131.leave -abandon ,desert

132.liberal -copious ,unrestrained

133.liberal -lenient ,open-minded

134.limitation -boundary, constraint

135.lucid -clear ,understandable

136.lucky -auspicious, fortunate

137.mad- furious, irate

138.manage -administer ,control

139.manipulate -control ,shape

140.marginal -borderline ,limited

141.match -agree ,correspond

142.maze -complexity, labyrinth

143.meditate -ponder ,think

144.memorial -commemoration ,
monument

145.mention -allude, refer to

146.merge -blend ,fuse

147.narrow -confined ,restricted

148.nature -aspect ,character

149.necessary -mandatory, requisite

150.negate -contradict ,refute

151.negligent -careless ,remiss

152.negotiate- bargain ,deal

153.nice -affable ,benign

154.noble- aristocratic, distinguished

155.novice -beginner, nonprofessional

156.nuisance -annoyance ,offense

157.obedient -faithful, loyal

158.objection -disapproval ,protest

159.obligatory -compulsory, required

160.observe- notice, watch

161.obvious -conspicuous ,definite

162.offend -anger ,irritate

163.offer -bid ,proposal

164.omen -premonition ,sign

165.omit -exclude ,remove

166.opportune -advantageous ,
auspicious

167.pacify -appease ,placate

168.pain -ache ,discomfort

169.paramount -chief ,leading

170.partisan -biased, dogmatic

171.passive -inactive, lethargic

172.pause -break ,cease

173.permeate- diffuse ,disseminate

174.perpetuate -endure ,preserve

175.perplex -astonish, baffle

176.persecute -afflict ,harass

177.radiate -effuse, emanate

178.radical -basic ,fundamental

179.range- anger ,furor

180.rank -arrange ,classify

181.realize -accomplish ,fulfill

182.recalcitrant- obstinate, stubborn

183.receptacle -container, repository

184.reconcile -atone ,conciliate

185.regret- deplore, grieve

186.reliable -dependable, trustworthy

187.sanction -approval ,permit

188.scope -aim ,extent

189.section -division ,portion

190.settle -adjust ,compromise

191.shallow -superficial ,trivial

192.shrewd -careful ,calculating

193.significant- distinctive, important

194.slight -delicate ,slender

195.spontaneous- impromptu ,
unplanned

196.spread -announce ,broadcast

197.stabilize -balance ,steady

198.tame -domesticate ,subdue

199.tangle -intertwine ,twist

200.temper -mood ,nature

201.tendency- inclination ,trend

202.term- cycle, duration

203.thrift -conservation ,prudence

204.tough -aggressive ,unyielding

205.transfer -convey ,exchange

206.tumult -agitation ,commotion

207.turbulent -disordered, violent

208.vain- boastful ,inflated

209.valid -authorized ,legitimate

210.variety- assortment ,diversify

211.verify -authenticate, substantiate

22000 Constables and Riflemen in CRPF, ITDP,BSF and CISF!!

STAFF SELECTION
COMMISSION (SSC)
RECRUITES 22000
CONSTABLE (GENERAL DUTY)
AND RIFLEMAN (GENERAL
DUTY) IN ITBPF, CISF, BSF,
CRPF, SSB AND ASSAM
RIFLES.
No. of vacancies varies from
State to State (State wise
vacancies). Below given are total
vacancies according to Force
wise —
FOR MALE CANDIDATES
ASSAM RIFLES—
Males: 1657 Nos. (Gen—864;
OBC—322; SC—218; ST—253)
Females: 192 Nos. (Gen—101;
OBC—35; SC—25; ST—31)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 416 Nos. (Gen—217;
OBC—19; SC—19; ST—4)
BORDER SECURITY FORCE
(BSF)
Males: 3245 Nos. (Gen—1689;
OBC—746; SC—503; ST—307)
Females: 800 Nos. (Gen—419;
OBC—184; SC—124; ST—73)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 48 Nos. (Gen—26;
OBC—3; ST—19)
CENTRAL INDUSTRIAL
SECURITY FORCE (CISF)
Males: 900 Nos. (Gen—455;
OBC—243; SC—135; ST—67)
Females: 100 Nos. (Gen—51;
OBC—27; SC—15; ST—7)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 811 Nos. (Gen—410;
OBC—169; SC—156; ST—76)
CENTRAL RESERVE POLICE
FORCE (CRPF)
Males: 10793 Nos. (Gen—4943;
OBC—2500; SC—2247; ST—
1103)
Females: 854 Nos. (Gen—100;
OBC—439; SC—192; ST—140)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 200 Nos. (Gen—100;
OBC—42; SC—39; ST—19)
INDO TIBETAN BORDER
POLICE FORCE (ITBPF)
Males: 168 Nos. (Gen—86; OBC
—40; SC—26; ST—16)
Females: 662 Nos. (Gen—343;
OBC—152; SC—152; ST—104)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 42 Nos. (Gen—27;
OBC—5; SC—6; ST—4)
SASHASTRA SEEMA BAL (SSB)
Males: 765 Nos. (Gen—398; OBC
—173; SC—115; ST—79)
Females: Nil
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 166 Nos. (Gen—100;
OBC—20; SC—22; ST—24)
Vacancies were available State
wise. For detailed State wise
vacancies, please refer the
Advertisement.
Vacancies according to State –
West Bengal is given below—
STATE: WEST BENGAL ; POST:
CONSTABLE (GENERAL DUTY)
1. ASSAM RIFLES: Male—97
Nos.; Female—11 nos;
2. BSF: Male— 224 Nos.; Female
—58 Nos.
3. CISF: Male—62 Nos.; Female
—7 Nos.; BG Districts—443 Nos.
4. CRPF: 749 Nos.; Female—58
Nos.; BG Districts—109 Nos.
5. ITBP: 12 Nos.; Female—47
Nos.
6. SSB: 53 Nos.; Female – Nil.
Qualification Required:
Matriculation (Class 10 pass) pass
candidates may apply for the
post.
Physical Standards:
a) Height: For Males : 170 cms;
For Females : 157 cms.
b) Chest: For males only –
Unexpanded : 80 cms. -
Expanded : Min 85 cms.
c) Weight: Proportional to height
and age as per medical standard.
Cut-off in Height and Chest for
reserved and Hilly area
candidates/ tribals is as per Govt.
norms (Refer the Advt.)
Pay scale: Rs.5200—20200 and
Grade pay: Rs.2000/-
Age Limits: between 18yrs to
23yrs as on 01-01-2013. Upper
age relaxation is as per norms.
Application fee: Rs.50/- only
through fee challan deposition
from any branch of State Bank
of India or Net banking (In case
of Offline application; through
Central Recruitment Fee Stamp/
CRFS).
Women candidates/ SC/ ST/ PH
candidates were exempted from
Application fee.
How to Apply: Apply Online or
Offline.
For Online application form, visit
the official website of SSC —
http://ssconline.nic.in .
For Offline application form;
candidates may download the
Application Form from above
website.
The recruitment will comprise of
Physical Standards Test (PST),
Physical Efficiency Test (PET),
Written Examination and Medical
Examination.
Last Date of Application—
Online Application form can be
submitted from dated 15th
December to 11th January 2013.
(18th January 2013 in case of
candidates applying offline from
far flung areas/ States)
Written Examination will be on
12-05-2013.
Before applying for the posts;
please go through the officially
released Advertisement. For
detailed Advt. and Application
form, please visit the following
link — http://ssconline.nic.in/

Tips for solving multiple choice questions in competitive examination!

The entrance exams mode requires
a drastic change in strategy and
orientation for students compared
to the board exams. Most of them
are objective type. This needs a
little bit of reorientation in the test
taking approach. Cracking entrance
exams is all about dedicated
practice on test types that are
relevant, followed by revision tests
and feedback. You may follow some
tips that will put you in good stead,
no matter which entrance exam
you are appearing for.
Start thinking about a strategy.
You need to play to your
strengths.
You need to learn to skip
questions.
You have to identify the areas
you are not so comfortable with.
It is advisable to experiment in
your practice tests.
Learn to master multiple choice
questions.
Multiple choice questions (MCQs)
are very different from subjective
questions. They provide for a lot of
intelligent guesswork. So one needs
to consciously ask while analysing
tests, "Is there a way to answer this
question using the choices?"
Time management holds the key
in all entrance exams.
The core value of effective time
management is focusing on the
right things.
Remember the '80:20 Rule'.
Usually 80 per cent of unfocussed
efforts generate merely 20 per
cent of results meaning the rest of
the 80 per cent results are attained
with 20 per cent efforts only.
Focus and effective time
management can be critical for
your final score.
Revise all the fundamental
concepts and identify and attempt
as many types of questions as
possible in a given topic.
Analyse the marking pattern for
the exams that you're appearing
for.
Negative marking means you
must select questions you think
you can answer, with care. If the
paper does not have any negative
marking, try and answer all
questions, even if you're not sure
of the answer.
Maintain your cool while taking the
test. Remember there are many
questions that you can attempt. Do
not get stuck at questions that take
inordinately long time. The best
attempts are made by those who
manage to read through the entire
paper. You can do that only if you
master the art of test taking. All
the Best!

Life Insurance Corporation of India requires 12529 Direct sales executive (DSE)

Life
Insurance Corporation of India
(LIC of India) is recruiting
12529 Direct Sales Executives
(DSE) for various offices of the
corporation. The engagement will
be on contractual basis for 3yrs
under the jurisdiction of Central/
East Central / East Zone/ North
Central/ Northern Zone/ South
Central/ Southern/ Western Zonal
Office. Eligible candidates may
apply online. Qualification
requirement and brief
information is given below –
LIFE INSURANCE CORPORATION
OF INDIA (LICI) REQUIRES 12529
DIRECT SALES EXECUTIVES (DSE)
UNDER JURISDICTION OF
DIFFERENT ZONAL OFFICE. LAST
DATE: 28/12/2012.
ZONAL WISE VACANCIES GIVEN
BELOW —
1. No. of vacancies in Central
Zonal Offices: 877 Nos.
— Bhopal: 87 Nos.
— Bilaspur: 116 Nos.
— Gwalior: 111 Nos.
— Indore: 88 Nos.
— Jabalpur: 116 Nos.
— Raipur: 120 Nos.
— Satna: 110 Nos.
— Shahdol: 129 Nos.
2. No. of Vacancies in Central
Zonal Offices: 1312 Nos.
— Patna 1: 123 Nos.
— Patna 2: 112 Nos.
— Bhagalpur: 34 Nos
— Begusarai: 121 Nos.
— Muzzafarpur: 123 Nos.
— Jamshedpur: 107 Nos.
— Hazaribagh: 97 Nos.
— Bhubaneswar: 100 Nos.
— Cuttack: 108 Nos.
— Berhampur: 134 Nos.
— Sambalpur: 142 Nos.
3. No. of Vacancies in Eastern
Zonal Offices: 721 Nos.
— Asansol: 55 Nos.
— Bardhaman: 40 Nos.
— Bongaigaon: 50 Nos.
— Guwahati: 50 Nos.
— Jorhat: 60 Nos.
— Kharagpur: 40 Nos.
— KMDO-I: 87 Nos.
— KMDO-II: 115 Nos.
— KSDO: 99 Nos.
— Silchar: 75 Nos
— Jalpaiguri: 50 Nos.
4. No. of vacancies in North
Central Zonal Offices: 1537
Nos.
— Agra: 104 Nos.
— SO Dibiyapur: 12 Nos.
— SO Etawah: 12 Nos.
— Aligarh: 80 Nos.
— Allahabad: 132 Nos.
— SO Khaga: 12 Nos
— SO Pratapgarh: 12 Nos.
— Bareilly: 123 Nos.
— Shahjahanpur: 12 Nos.
— SO Hardoi: 12 Nos.
— Dehradun: 54 Nos.
— BO-1 Hardwar: 12 Nos.
— BO-2 Roorkee: 12 Nos.
— Faizabad: 86 Nos.
— BO-1 Saharanpur: 12 Nos.
— BO Raibereli: 12 Nos.
— BO Barabanki: 12 Nos.
— Gorakhpur: 87 Nos.
— CAB Azamgarh: 12 Nos.
— CAB Gorakhpur: 12 Nos.
— Haldwani: 91 Nos.
— Rudrapur: 12 Nos
— Kashipur: 12 Nos.
— Kanpur: 87 Nos.
— SO Gwaltoli: 12 Nos.
— SO Panki: 12 Nos.
— CAB Jhansi: 12 Nos.
— Lucknow: 98 Nos.
— SO B&AC Sitapur: 12 Nos.
— SO Chinhat: 12 Nos.
— Meerut: 114 Nos.
— CAB Moradabad: 12 Nos.
— Noida: 119 Nos.
— Varanasi: 86 Nos.
— Mirzapur: 12 Nos.
— Shakthi Nagar: 12 Nos.
5. No. of Vacancies in South
Central Zonal Offices: 1486
Nos.
— Bangalore 1: 239 Nos.
— Bangalore 2 : 266 Nos.
— Belgaum: 135 Nos.
— Gulbarga: 129 Nos.
— Warangal: 231 Nos.
— Mangalore: 253 Nos.
— Vijaywada: 96 Nos.
6. No. of Vacancies in Southern
Zonal Offices: 1815 Nos.
— Chennai 1: 152 Nos.
— Chennai 2: 278 Nos.
— Coimbatore: 73 Nos.
— Madurai: 77 Nos.
— Salem: 79 Nos.
— Tirunelveli: 236 Nos.
— Trichy: 262 Nos.
— Vellore: 158 Nos.
— Ernakulam: 129 Nos.
— Kottayam: 70 Nos.
— Kozhikode: 86 Nos.
— Thiruvananthapuram: 98 Nos.
— Thrissur: 97 Nos.
7. No. of vacancies in Western
Zonal Office: 2378 Nos.
— Ahmedabad: 120 Nos.
— Amravati: 119 Nos.
— Aurangabad: 72 Nos.
— Bhavnagar: 120 Nos.
— Gandhinagar: 79 Nos.
— Goa: 150 Nos.
— Kolhapur: 128 Nos.
— Mumbai – I: 123 Nos.
— Mumbai – II: 130 Nos.
— Nadiad: 111 Nos.
— Nagpur: 123 Nos.
— Nanded: 125 Nos.
— Nashik: 132 Nos.
— Pune – I: 114 Nos.
— Pune – 2: 135 Nos.
— Rajkot: 114 Nos.
— Satara: 130 Nos.
— Surat: 114 Nos.
— Thane: 130 Nos.
— Vadodara: 109 Nos.
8. No. of Vacancies in LIC
Northern Zonal Offices: 2403
Nos.
— Delhi – I: 113 Nos.
— Delhi – II: 110 Nos.
— Delhi – III: 126 Nos.
— Delhi – II: 140 Nos.
— Delhi – III: 130 Nos.
— Chandigarh: 129 Nos.
— Chandigarh: 115 Nos.
— Jaipur – I: 82 Nos.
— Ludhiyana: 125 Nos.
— Jalandhar: 99 Nos.
— Jodhpur: 95 Nos.
— Ajmer: 108 Nos.
— Karnal: 128 Nos.
— Udaipur: 121 Nos.
— Srinagar: 138 Nos.
— Amritsar: 121 Nos.
— Shimla: 73 Nos.
— Rohtak: 150 Nos.
— Jaipur – II: 150 Nos.
— Bikaner: 150 Nos.
Qualification Required: Bachelor
degree. Preference may be given
to those applicants who possess a
Bachelor Degree or Diploma in
Marketing /Management.
Knowledge in English and fluency
in Regional/ local language is
desirable. Knowledge in computer
application such as MS Word/
Excel/ Etc will be taken as
additional advantage.
Age Limits: between 21yrs to
35yrs as on 01/12/2012. Upper
age relaxation is as per norms.
Selection of the candidates will be
through Written Examination
followed by an Interview. Actual
date and venue of Written
Examination and Interview will be
intimated in due course.
Application fee: Rs.100/- is to be
paid in cash through cash counter
of any Branch office of Life
Insurance Corporation of India
under Account Code – 114034.
SC/ST candidates are not
require to deposit Application
fee.
How to Apply: Interested
candidates may apply Online from
the official website of LIC —
http://www.licindia.in/
careers.htm
On successful acceptance of
online application form, a unique
Registration number and
Password is generated and
displayed to the candidate. The
candidate is given the option to
print the application form after
completing the application to
keep for his/her reference. The
candidate can also reprint the
application subsequently till the
last date for application by
providing (i) Registration
Number and (ii) Password.
For detailed Advt. and Application
form, please visit the following
link — http://www.licindia.in/
careers_pop0002.htm

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Child psychology and pedagogy objective questions with answers

Child development and psychology:  Sample solved objective questions

Set-1

1. The most difficult age for the
development of a child is -
(a) Early childhood
(b) Teen age
(c) Young age
(d) Adult age

2. Heredity and atmosphere are
correlate
(a) Companions
(b) Dependent
(c) Elders
(d) All of these

3. Which of the following factors
comes in the way of girls' personal
rights?
(a) Social Recognition
(b) Family
(c) Gender Difference
(d) All of these

4. Which of the following is not an
accepted stage in Kohlberg's
Theory of Moral Development?
(a) Interpersonal relations
(b) Individualism
(c) Social contract and social rights
(d) Universal principles

5. Which of the following is not
considered a factor of cognition?
(a) Fear
(b) Retreat
(c) Anger
(d) Hunger

6. An ideal teacher should
concentrate
(a) On teaching methods
(b) On the subject being taught
(c) On students and their
behaviours
(d) On all of these

7. The motif of the concept of
curricular flexibility is to benefit
(a) Disabled students
(b) Minority students
(c) Reserved castes
(d) All of these

8. Which of the following is not
considered a tool for formative
assessment
(a) Oral questions
(b) MCQ
(c) Assignments
(d) Projects

9. What do you understand by the
term Peer Group ?
(a) People of same profession
(b) Friends and acquaintances
(c) Family members and relatives
(d) All of these

10. A problem child has
(a) Pampering guardians
(b) Hereditary problems
(c) IQ problems
(d) Physical problems

Answers of WB TET child
development and pedagogy
model questions
1. (b), 2. (d), 3. (d), 4. (c), 5. (b),
6. (d), 7. (a), 8. (b), 9. (d), 10. (a).

Set-2

1. Absenteeism can be tackled
by :
(1) teaching (2) punishing the
students (3) giving the sweets (4)
contacting the parents

2. Discipline means: (1) strict-
behaviour (2) severe punishment
(3) obedience (4) going by the
rules

3. If any girl child does not corne
to school regularly you will
(1) no bother (2) struck off her
name (3) complain to the
Principal (4) meet the parents and
en-
courage them .

4. In co-education you want't to :
(1) make separate rows of boys
and girls (2) you give preference
to boys over girls
(3) you. give preference to none
(4) you deal according to need

5. One of the basic priniclples of
socializing Individuals is :
(1) religion (2)
caste (3) educational (4) imitation

Directions (6-10) :
Which of the' skills do you
consider most essential for a
teacher?

6. (1) Oration skills
(2) Listening skills (3) Managerial
skills, (4) Teaching skills

7. (1) encourage children to
search for knowledge
(2) have all the information for
the children
(3) ability to make children
memorize materials
(4) enable children to do well in
tests

8. (1) identify gifted children (2)
have an understanding of all
children abilities (3) identify
children with learning
disabilities (4) none of the above

9. (1) _ ability to help children un­
derstand texts thoroughly (2)
ability to help children do all the
exercises
(3) ability to raise possible ac­
tions from the texts
(4) ability to help children from
their own opinions on the text

10. (1) to communicate well
{2) to use difficult language
(3) to impress students
(4) to read out the textbook

11. Success in developing values
is mainly dependent upon:
(1) government (2) society  (3)
family (4) teacher

12. Good reading aims at develop­
ing:
(l) understanding (2)
pronunciation (3) sensitivity (4)
increasing factual knowledge

13. The primary duty of a teacher
is to be responsible to his/her:
(1) family (2) students  (3)
society  (4) nation

14. Which of the following is not
related to educational achieve­
ment?
(1) Heredity (2) Experiences (3)
Practice (4) Self learning

15. One of,the students of a class
hardly talks in the class. How
would you encourage him to
express himself?
(1) By orgariising discussions (2)
By encouraging children to take
part in classroom activities
(3) By organizing educational
games/ programmes in which -
children feel like speaking-
(4) By giving good marks to those
who express them'selves well

Answers: 1.4, 2. 4, 3. 4, 4. 4, 5.
3, 5. 4, 7. 1, 8. 2, 9. 4, 10. 1,
11. 3, 12. 1, 13. 2, 14. 1, 15. 3

Set-3 

1. The stage in which a child be­
gins to think logically about
objects and events is known as-
(1) sensory-motor stage (2)
formal operational stage (3) pre-
operational stage (4) concrete
operational stage

2. Four distinct stages of chil­
dren's intellectual development
were identified by-
(1) Kohlberg (2) Erikson (3)
Skinner  (4) Piaget

3. Parents should play
a .............. role in the learning
process of young children.
(1) negative (2) proactive (3)
sympathetic (4) neutral

4. Which is the place where the
child's cognitive development is
defined in the best way?
(1) Playground (2) School and
classroom (3) Auditorium (4)
Home

5. ...is considered a sign of
motivated teaching.
(1) Maximum attendance in class
(2) Remedial work given by the
teacher
(3) Questioning by students
(4) Pin drop silence in the class

6. At lower classes play-way
method of teaching is based on-
(1) theory of physical education
programmes
(2) principles of methods of
teaching
(3) psychological principles of
development and growth
(4) sociological principles of
teaching

7. Dyslexia is associated with
(1) mental disorder (2)
mathematical disorder (3) reading
disorder (4) behavioural disorder

8. Education of children with
special needs should be provided
(1) along with other normal
children (2) by methods
developed for special children ,in
special schools (3) in special
school (4) by special teachers in
special schools

9. In the process of learning,
motivation-
(1) sharpens the memory of
learners (2) differentiates new
learning from old learning (3)
makes learners
think unidirectionally (4) creates
interest for learning among new
learners.

10. A student of grade 5 with
visual deficiency should be-
(1) excused to do a lower level of
work
(2) helped with his/her routine
work by parents and friends
(3) treated normally in the
classroom and provided support
through audio CDs.
(4) given special treatment in the
classroom

Answer key: 1. 3, 2. 4, 3. 3, 4. 2,
5. 2, 6. 3, 7. 3, 8. 1, 9. 4, 10. 3

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Environmental science multiple choice questions/answers (Set-2)

Environmental science multiple choice question /answers:

1. Identify the correct
chronological sequence (oldest to
youngest) in the order of their
formation:
A. Pacific ocean > Atlantic Ocean >
Mediterranean Sea > Indian Ocean
B. Pacific ocean > Atlantic Ocean >
Indian Ocean > Mediterranean Sea
C. Atlantic ocean > Pacific Ocean >
Indian Ocean > Mediterranean Sea
D. Atlantic ocean > Pacific Ocean >
Mediterranean Sea > Indian Ocean
2. Movement of individual rock
masses along structural planes such
as bedding, joints and faults on a
slope is known as:
A. debris slide
B. slump
C. rock slide
D. soil creep
3. Make list I and list II and select
the correct answer using codes
given below the lists:
List I List II
(a) Mid oceanic ridge (i) Alkali rich
basalt
(b) Rift valley (ii) Potash poor
basalt
(c) Island arc (iii) Andesite
(d) Continent (iv) Plateau basalt
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
B. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
4. Consider the following about the
Himalayan orogeny:
(a) The orogeny resulted from the
southward movement
(b) The orogeny began about 25
million years ago
(c) The orogeny closed about 1
million years ago
(d) The Himalayas have a root of
relatively light crustal rocks
projecting into the denser mantle.
Which of the following
combinations is correct?
A (a) and (b)
B. (c) and (d)
C. (a) and (c)
D. (b) and (d)
5. A seismogram records the
following types of earthquake
waves.
(a) L - waves
(b) P - waves
(c) S - waves
The correct chronological sequence
of the arrival of these waves is :
A. (b), (c) and (a)
B. (b), (a) and (c)
C. (c), (a) and (b)
D. (a), (b) and (c) arrive at the
same time
6. Which one of the following
statement is true of braided
streams?
A Width of the channel is less than
its depth
B. Width and depth of the channel
are equal
C. Width of the channel is greater
than its depth
D. Width of the channel is
unrelated to its depth
7. In which of the following
frequency ranges the human ear is
most sensitive to noise:
A. 1 - 2 KHz
B. 100 - 500 Hz
C. 10 - 12 KHz
D. 13 - 16 KHz
9. Assertion (A): Aerosols have
potential for modifying the climate.
Reason (R): Aerosols interact with
both short wave and infra - red
radiations.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
C. (A) is true and (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true
10. Which of the following grows
rapidly resulting in the shrinkage of
water bodies?
A. Phytoplankton
B. Zooplankton
C. Algae
D. Macrophytes
11. Which species of chromium is
toxic in water?
A .Cr+ 2
B. Cr+ 3
C. Cr+6
D. Cr°
12. Chemical compounds having
same crystal structure are called:
A. Polymorphic
B. Pseudomorphic
C. Isomorphic
D. None of the above
13. Micas having an atomic
structure defined as continuous
sheets of tetrahedrons, sharing 3-
oxygen atoms, are called:
A. Inosilicate
B. Phyllosilicate
C. Tectosilicate
D. Sorosilicate
15. If the population growth
follows a logistic curve, the
maximum sustainable yield:
A. is equal to half the carrying
capacity
B. is equal to the carrying capacity
C. depends on growth rate
D. depends on the initial
population
16. Fluidized - bed combustion of
coal is an efficient method of
controlling which of the following
air pollutants:
A. CO
B. SPM and NOx
C. NOx and SOx
D. CO, SPM and SOx
17. The plume rise in a coal based
thermal power plant depends on:
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Atmospheric stability
(c) Momentum of exhaust gases
Identify the correct combination
A. (a) and (b) only
B. (b) and (c) only
C. (a) and (c) only
D. (a), (b) and (c)
18. The efficiency of a solar flat
plate collector depends on:
(a) Thermal efficiency
(b) Optical efficiency
(c) Solar flux
Identify the correct combination
A. (a), (b) and (c)
B. (a) and (b) only
C. (b) and (c) only
D. (a) and (c) only
19. An increase of 10 ppm in the
concentration of CO, in atmosphere
represents approximately an
addition of carbon of amount:
A. 1.2 Kilotons
B. 2.12 Megatons
C. 21.2 Geiga tons
D. 2120 tons
20. Winds blowing down an incline
often due to cold air drainage are
called:
A. Anabatic winds
B. Mountain winds
C. Cyclonic winds
D. Katabatic winds
21. Mixing height is:
A. the height of ground based
inversion
B. the height at which geostrophic
balance occurs
C. the height of constant solar flux
layer
D. the height upto which
atmosphere is churned by
convection
22. For a comprehensive EIA study,
it is to be conducted for:
A. The whole year
B. Any three seasons including
monsoon
C. Three seasons excluding
monsoon
D. The worst season
24. In initial environmental
examination, the following are
considered:
A. No quantitative data
B. Primary data
C. Secondary data
D. On site data for at least a
season
25. Which of the following forest
types is most widespread in India?
A. Tropical evergreen forest
B. Tropical deciduous forest
C. Temperate forest
D. Scrub forest
26. The presence of
pneumatophores is seen in:
A. Desert plants
B. Climbers and lianas
C. Trees of tropical moist forests
D. Mangroves
27. Ramsar convention is related to
conservation of:
A. Tiger
B. Elephants
C. Crop genetic diversity
D. Wetlands
28. A significant effect of climate
change on account of global
warming on terrestrial plants will
be on:
A. Stomatal mechanism
B. Amino acid composition of
cereal grains
C. Phenology
D. Bark formation in trees
29. A tree, which is popular in
social forestry programme in India,
is:
A. Shorea robusta
B. Ailanthus excelsa
C. Cedrus deodara
D. Callistemon lanceolatus
30. The great Indian Rhino has its
natural home in:
A. Kaziranga National Park
B. Corbett National Park
C. Sunderbans
D. Kanha National Park
31. According to the Botanical
Survey of India, the total number
of plant species in India is about:
A. 45,000
B. 75,000
C. 17,000
D. 30,000
32. Assertion (A): Bt cotton is a
transgenic crop which has been
introduced iri India, but is being
opposed on environmental
grounds. Reason (R): CrylAc protein
in Bt cotton has been found to be
toxic and allergenic to human
beings.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true
33. Oxygen toxicity (in humans) is
caused by:
A. Inhalation of molecular oxygen
B. Generation of free radicals
C. Interactions of singlet oxygen
with membrane
D. None of the above
34. C 2F 3 C1 3 gas:
A. absorbs ultraviolet radiations
B. affects troposphere ozone
C. forms aerosols in stratosphere
D. absorbs infrared radiations
35. Which of the following shows
bioaccumulation and contaminate
food chains?
A. Pesticides
B. Polychlorinated biphenyls
C. PAN
D. All of the above
36. Removal of which of the
following impurities from
contaminated water requires the of
coagulants:
A. Colloidal impurities
B. dissolved solids
C. micro organisms
D. all of the above
38. The most efficient method of
biodegradable urban solid waste
management is:
A. Landfills
B. Pelletisation
C. Gasification
D. Composting
39. Pollutants in soil can be broken
down by micro organisms. The
process is called:
A. Probiotics
B. Bioremediation
C. Bioaugmentation
D. None of the above
40. A thermodynamic function of
state which is constant during a
reversible isobaric isothermal
process is:
A. Geothermal potential
B. Thermodynamic efficiency
C. Enthalpy
D. Gibb's free energy
41. t - statistic is useful for testing:
A. Variances
B. Overall goodness of fit of a
regression model
C. null hypothesis for a regression
coefficient
D. constancy of the mean
43. 1 metric ton of average coal in
energy terms is equivalent to:
A. 2000 cubic feet of natural gas
B. 24000 cubic feet of natural gas
C. 1.5 barrels of oil
D. 2.0 barrels of oil
45. In marine environment
Carbonate Compensation Depth
(CCD) is defined as depth at which:
A. Carbonate begins to dissolve
B. Carbonate begins to precipitate
C. Carbonate begins to precipitate
D. Bicarbonate begins to dissolve
46. In an idealised Magneto
hydrodynamic power plant, the
maximum power output varies with
fuel velocity (u) as:
A. U
B. U 2
C. U 3
D. U 1/2
48. In humid climate, weathering
of various types "of rocks occurs.
Identify the correct sequence
in order of decreasing weathering:
A. Basalt > Dunite > Granite
B. Basalt > Granite > Dunite
C. Dunite > Granite > Basalt
D. Dunite > Basalt > Granite
49. Match list I and list II and
select the correct answer using
codes given below the lists
List I List II
(a) Ozone depletion (i) Basel
convention
(b) CO-, reduction (ii) Kyoto
Protocol
(c) Sustainable development (iii) Rio
Summit lopment
(d) Hazardous waste (iv) Montreal
Protocol Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
B. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
C. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
50. The lion - tailed macaque is
endemic to:
A. Andaman and Nicobar islands
B. Lakshadweep
C. Nilgiri
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Answers
1   2   3   4   5   6   7   9  10
A  C   B   D  A   C  B   B   A
11 12 13 15 16 17 18 19 20
B    C    D  A   D   D   D  B  B
21 22 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C    A   B   B   C   D   A   A   A
31 32 33 34 35 36 38 39 40
A    A   B   B   D  B  D  B   D
41 43 45 46 48 49 50
B    D   A  C   A   B  A

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Environmental science multiple choice questions/answers (Set-1)

Environmental science study materials:
1. Which of the following
statement about Fjord is incorrect?
A. Most Fjords were formed due to
raise in sea level after the melting
of Pleistocene ice
B. It is an emergent coast that was
originally submerged
C. It is a long narrow inlet of the
sea bound by steep slopes
D. It is a glaciated valley that has
been inundated by the sea

3. Residence time of water
molecule in the ocean is:
A. 3.5 years
B. 3.5 million years
C. 35 years
D. 35000 years

4. Hyperplasia means:
A. excessive motility of a muscle
B. Voracious eating
C. Abnormal increase in number of
cells
D. An increase in size of a cell

5. Carbon dioxide absorbs radiation
in the range:
A. 5.5 and 7 microns
B. Greater than 27 microns
C. 8 to 13 microns
D. 0.1 to 30 microns

6. Sodium is usually estimated by
which of the following analytical
technique:
A. Flame Photometry
B. Coulometry
C. High pressure liquid
chromotography
D. Visible spectrophotometry

7. Which combination of the
following elements constitutes a
major portion of earth crust:
A. Oxygen and Silicon
B. Oxygen and Iron
C. Silicon and Iron
D. Aluminium and Iron

8. Assertion (A):
Chlorofluorocarbons deplete ozone.
Reason (R): These compounds
contain Chlorine, Bromine and
Fluorine.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

10. Maximum Density of water is
at:
A. 4°C
B. 0°C
C. 100°C
D. 272°C

11. The cause of lung cancer
Mesothalemia is:
A. Asbestos
B. Arsenic
C. Mercury
D. Chromium

12. Which of the following pattern
of evolution accounts for all the
diversity present on earth today?
A .Microevolution
B. Megaevolution
C. Biodiversity
D. Speciation

13. Group of individuals of the
same species that share common
attributes are called:
A. Community
B. Population
C. Ecotype
D. Society

14. Which one of the following is
the correct food chain?
A. Algae -> Daphnia -> Dragon Fly
Nymph -» Newt -» Grass Snake
B. Daphnia -» Dragon Fly Nymph ->
Newt -» Algae -> Grass Snake
C. Grass Snake -> Newt -» Dragon
Fly Nymph Daphnia Algae
D. Newt -» Grass Snake -» Dragon
Fly Nymph -» Algae -> Daphnia

16 . Assertion (A): Monsoonal
rainfall is very high both on the
west coast and northeast India.
Reason (R): The duration of
monsoon over west coast and
northeast India is longer than
other parts of India.
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

19. Which one of the following
statements regarding El-NINO is
NOT true?
A. It is an extension of equatorial
current towards the western coast
of South America.
B. It is an occasional warm current
leading to an increase of about
10°C in subsurface water
temperature.
C. It develops as temporary
replacement of usual cold Peruvian
Current.
D. It causes an increase in plankton
thriving in cold Peruvian current.

20. The process of alluviation
indicates:
A .Removal of particles from the
upper layer of soil
B. Removal of particles from lower
layer of soil
C. Deposition of soil particles in
sub-soil layer
D. Transportation of soil particles
in the B-horizon

21. Which one of the following is
the cleanest source of energy?
A. Hydropower
B. Fossil fuel
C. Nuclear power
D. Wind energy

22. Match the items in List - I with
List - II and select the correct
answer using codes given below:
List I List - II
(a) CFC (i) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
(b) C0 2 (ii) Global Warming
(c) BOD (iii) Ozone depletion
(d) MIC (iv) Water pollution Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

23. The global warming efficiency
of a CFC molecule in relation to a
CO-, molecule is higher by a factor
of:
A. 125
B. 25
C. 20,000
D. 1500

24. Arsenic problem in India is
primarily due to:
A. Overexploitation of arsenopyrite
in the hinterland
B. Overexploitation of coal in Bihar
and Bengal
C. Overexploitation of ground
water in the affected areas
D. Overexploitation of surface
water in the affected areas

25. Acid rain is caused by:
A. CO and CO2 ,
B. SO 2 ,and 0 2
C. S0 2 and NO" 2
D. NO 2 and O 2

26. What will be the outcome of
Eutrophication of surface waters?
A. Overproduction of biomass
B. Decrease in nitrogen
concentration
C. Decrease in phosphorus
concentration
D. Decrease in both nitrogen and
phosphorus concentrations.

27. Assertion (A): Negatively
charged soil particles attract
positive ions like Ca++ and Mg ++
Reason (R): The attraction keeps the
ions at soil level for ready
availability.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

29. Cost Benefit analysis is
required in case of proposals
involving clearance of forest land:
A. Greater than 1Oha but less than
20ha
B. Greater than 20ha
C. Greater than 5ha but less than
1Oha
D. Greater than 40ha only

30. Ecologically sensitive and
important areas, breeding and
spawning grounds of marine life
etc., are categorized in coastal
Regulation Zone as:
A. CRZ - IV
B. CRZ - II
C. CRZ - III
D. CRZ - I

31. A management tool comprising
a systematic, periodic and objective
evaluation of how well an
environmental organization,
management and equipment are
performing is known as:
A. Raw material balance
B. Input - output analysis
C. Acturities at site
D. Environmental audit

33. Match the items in List - I with
List - II and select the correct
answer using codes given below:
List - I List - II
• (a) Montreal Conven- (i) Ozone
depletion tion
(b) Rio - Summit (ii) Greenhouse
gas
(c) Ramsah Conven- (iii) Convention
on tion Biological diversity
(d) Kyoto Protocol (iv) Wetlands
convention
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

34. The least preferred technique
in the disposal of municipal solid
waste is:
A. incineration
B. composting
C. land filling
D. bricketting

35. Bacterial decomposition of
biological material under aerobic
condition is:
A. Fermentation
B. Fertilization
C. Contamination
D. Composting

36. When you go for shopping,
what are you expected to do to
save environment?
A. Shop for products that have as
little packaging as possible.
B. In any store, use a bag even it is
not needed.
C. Do not reduce the frequency of
shopping.
D. Buy paper towels and napkins.

38. In the analysis of 15 water
samples, Ca and Mg gave a
correlation of +0.95. It means:
A. Ca came from soil and Mg came
from biota
B. Ca and Mg both came from the
same type of water
C. Ca and Mg are both cogenetic
D. Ca and Mg came from different
sources.

39. If a piece of metal weighs
10.2g in air, 8.6g in water and
7.8g in another liquid, then what
will be the specific gravity of the
liquid?
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 3.0

40. The geometric mean of the
numbers 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 is:
A. 12
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32

41. The correlation coefficient
between the variables X, Y as given
in the following table:
X 1 3 4 6 8 9 11 14
Y 1 2 4 4 5 7 8 9 is:
A. -0.977
B. -0.517
C. +0.977
D. +0.217

42. Climatic stress is caused by
insufficient and/or excessive
regime of:
A. Temperature
B. Humidity
C. Solar radiation
D. All the above

43. The chemical that is used to
ripen mangoes is:
A .Calcium sulphide
B. Calcium carbide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Calcium chloride
44. Which two of the following
statements regarding ISO 14000
series of standards are true?
Answer choosing the code given
below:
(i) ISO 14000 standards are based
on a principle assumption that
better environmental management
will lead to better environmental
performance.
(ii) ISO M°C/u standards are
regulatory standards developed by
ISO
(iii) ISO 14000 standards are
market driven and therefore are
based on voluntary involvement of
all interests in the market place.
(iv) The adoption of ISO 14000 is a
one time commitment
A (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)

45. Organisms that generate energy
using light are:
A. oligotrophs
B. chaemorganotrophs
C. chaemolithotrophs
D. photoautotrophs

47. Land use pattern is usually
studied by the following technique:
A. Aerial photography
B. Satellite imaging
C. Satellite imaging and G. I. S.
D. Satellite imaging, G. I. S. and G.
P. S.

48. To conserve coral reefs the
Govt, of India declared one of the
following as Marine Park:
A. Gulf of Kutch
B. Lakshadweep islands
C. Gulf of Mannar
D. Andaman Islands

49. Which one of the following
does not contribute to
conservation of water?
A Waste water treatment
B. Waste land development
C. Water shed protection
D. Rain water harvesting

50. Particle size in soil can be
classified as clay: 1-4 micron. Silt:
4-62 micron. Sand: 62-1000
micron; Boulder: >1000 micron. It
is hence correct to suggest that in
nature particle size distribution
follows:
A. Binomial distribution
B. Lognormal distribution
C. Linear distribution
D. Normal distribution
Answers
1   3  4   5   6   7   8   10
D  C  C  A   A   A   C   A
11 12 13 14 16 19 20
B    C    C   A  B   A  C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 29 30
D    A   A   C   C   A   A   A   D
31 33 34 35 36 38 39 40
D    C   D   A   A   D   C  C
41 42 43 44 45 47 48 49 50
C    D    B  A   D   B   B   B  D

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Practice paper current affairs questions /answers

1. Nepal President Ram Baran
Yadav on 29 May 2012 removed
…………………………from his post,
(a) Khil Raj Regmi
(b) Parmanand Jha
(c) Baburam Bhattarai
(d) Purna Kumari Subedi
Answer:  (c)
2. In what location did a powerful
5.8 magnitude earthquake hit,
killing at least 16 people and
injuring 350 on 30 May 2012
(a) Northeastern Italy
(b) Pakistan
(c) Bali
(d) Sikkim
Answer:  (a)
3. A Boeing MD83 aircraft crashed
on 3 June 2012. All 153 people on
board were killed in the worst air
disaster of the country in nearly
past two decades. Identify the
place.
(a) Lagos, the largest Nigerian city
Antonis Samara
(b) Naha Airport, Japan
(c) Verona, Italy,
(d) Cricklewood Aerodrome, North
London
Answer: (a)
4. The United Nations Human
Rights Council on 1 June 2012
approved an investigation into the
mass killing of civilians at ………..
and condemned Syria for the
massacre. (identify the place out of
the names)
a. Gilani
b. Houla
c. Haqqani
d. Chidambaram
Answer: (c)
5. Which two countries on 31 May
2012 inked a Tax Information
Exchange Agreement to promote
economic cooperation and joint
investment between the two
countries.
(a) India and Bahrain
(b) India and Singapore
(c) India and China
(d) India and South Korea
Answer:  (a)
6. Which the following two
countries have had talks in Siachen
that were held at the Ministry of
Defence, Rawalpindi on 11 – 12
June 2012.
(a) India and Pakistan
(b)   Afghanistan and India
(c) India and United States of
America
(d) India and Israel
Answer:  (a)
7. _______________ US defence
secretary arrived India on a two-
day visit in June, 2012 ?
(a) Barak Obama
(b)    Antonis Samara
(c) Mohommed Moorsi
(d)    Leon Panetta
Answer: (d) Leon Panetta
8. Who was held responsible by the
Pakistan judicial commission for
not being fair to his country while
serving as an envoy to the United
States of America and also Held
him responsible for memo seeking
help to stave off a feared coup in
that country.
a. Yusuf Raja Gilani
b. Antonis Samara
c. Husain Haqqani
d. P. Chidambaram
Answer: (c)
9. Identify the false date of the
World Anti-child Labour Day which
is observed across the globe to
highlight the need to protect the
rights of the child.
(a) 6 January
(b) 15 August
(c) 25 November
(d) 12 June
Answer. (d)
10. Which of the following two
countries have decided to make
serious efforts for amicable
solution to Siachen issue.
(a) India and Pakistan
(b) India and Russia
(c) India and South Korea
(d) India and Afghanistan
Answer: (a)

11. A US drone strike in northwest
Pakistan killed al-Qaida's second-
in-command -------------?
(a) Ayman al-Zawahiri
(b)   Abu Yahya al-Libi
(c) Hasan Qayid
(d) Osama Bin Laden
Answer:  (b)
12. A Boeing MD83 aircraft crashed
on 3 June 2012. All 153 people on
board were killed in the worst air
disaster of the country in nearly
past two decades. Identify the
place.
(a) Lagos, the largest Nigerian
city Antonis Samara
(b)    Naha Airport, Japan
(c) Verona, Italy,
(d) Cricklewood Aerodrome,
North London
Answer: (a)
13. A country’s pro-democracy
leader -------------carried out her
first trip outside the country since
1988.
a. Yusuf Raja Gilani
b. Aung Saan Suu Kyi
c. Husain Haqqani
d. P. Chidambaram
Answer: (c)
14. Which missile did Pakistan
successfully test-fire on 5 June
2012?
(a) Hatf-VII (Babur) cruise missile
(b)   Agni –VI (air drone)
(c) Alacrán missile
(d) Velvet Glove
Answer:  (a)

15. Name the Indian Army Officer
whose ban was ban was lifted by
Indian Army Chief General Bikram
Singh?
a. Lt. General Dalbir Singh Suhag
b.    Lt. General PS Thorrat
c. Lt. General Ranjeet Singh
d.    Lt. General BK Singh
Answer: (a)
16. According to which international
organisation’s report, India is listed
among the top five countries
across the world where a large
number of children dies due to
diseases like pneumonia and
diarrhoea ?
a. UNICEF
b.    WHO
c. World Bank
d.    NHRC
Answer: (a)
17. Name the Indian cricketer who
was sworn in as the member of
Rajya Sabha, the upper house of
the Indian Parliament on 4 June
2012 ?
a. MS Dhoni
b.    Sachin Tendulkar
c. Sunil Gavaskar
d.    Saurabh Ganguly
Answer: (b)

18. Who Indian player won
Thailand Open Grand Prix Gold title
in Bangkok 2012?
a.Madhumita Bisht
b. Saniya nehwal
c. Jwala Gupta
d. Aparna Popat
Answer. (b)
19. which one of the following is
correct:
Rafael Nadal defeated _______ to
win his seventh French Open
Singles Title.
a. Mats Wilander
b. Roy Emerson
c. Serbian Novak Djokovic
d. Roland Garros
Answer. (c)
20. Which one of the following
won French Open 2012?
a. Maria Sharapova
b. Petra Kvitova
c. Venus Williams
d. Sara Errani
Answer. (a)
21. Which one of the following is
correct?
Maria Sharapova defeated _______
to win French Open 2012
a. Kim Clijsters
b. Agnieszka Radwanska
c. Venus Williams
d. Sara Errani
Answer. (d)
22. Consider the following:
Who won the in Asian junior
wrestling championship 2012?
a. Indu Chaudhary
b. Sakshi Malik
c. Both A and B
d. None of the Above
Answer. (c)

23. Name the two players on whom
AITA (All India Tennis Association)
extended ban till June 2014
(a) Mahesh Bhupati and Rohan
Bopanna
(b) Sania Mirza and Rohan Bopanna
(c) Leander Paes and Sania Mirza
(d) Leander Paes and Mahesh
Bhupati
Answer: (a) Mahesh Bhupati and
Rohan Bopanna
24. Name the owner of Delhi
franchise of hockey India
(a) Tata Group
(b) Wave Group
(c) Bharti Group
(d) Aircel and Reliance
Answer: (b) Wave Group
25. Name the person who has been
appointed as full time president of
Hockey India.
(a) Gayatri Shetty
(b) Mariamma koshy
(c) Bachendri Pal
(d) Dilip Tirki
Answer: (b) Mariamma koshy
26. Name the the Australian
Cricketer who on 20 September
2012 announced his retirement
from all formats of Cricket.
(a) Matthew Hayden
(b) Ricky Pointing
(c) Michael Clarke
(d) Bret Lee
Answer: (a) Matthew Hayden
27. Name the BJP MLA who was
elected as the President of Indian
Boxing Federation on 23 September
2012.
(a) Abhishek Matoria
(b) Ashok Gehlot
(c) Mahesh Joshi
(d) Sachin Pilot
Answer: (a) Abhishek Matoria

28. The Indian Railway Catering and
Tourism Corporation Limited
introduced a system for making the
payment of the bookings via
mobile phones. What is the name
of that system?
(a) Interbank Mobile Payment
System (IMPS)
(b) Sybase mobile banking System
(c) Railway mobile banking system
(d) PNB mobile banking System
Answer: (a) Interbank Mobile
Payment System (IMPS)
29. Name the Union Minister who
had suggested setting up of a
National Investment Board (NIB)
under Prime Minister Manmohan
Singh to accord speedy clearances
to mega proposals.
(a) Sharad Pawar
(b) A.K. Antony
(c) Kapil Sibal
(d) P. Chidambaram
Answer (d) P. Chidambaram
30. Reserve Bank of India injected a
liquidity of around ___________by
slashing down the Cash Reserve
Ratio (CRR) by 25 basis points to
4.50 percent from 4.75 percent.
(a) 17000 crore
(b) 15000 crore
(c) 10000 crore
(d) 12000 crore
Answer: (a) 17000 crore
31. Shimla Municipal Corporation
introduced a Tax on Shimla entry
of vehicles that are not registered
in Himachal Pradesh. What was the
name of that tax?
(a) Envy Tax
(b) Green Tax
(c) Carbon tax
(d) Natural resource consumption
tax
Answer: (b) Green tax
32. Name the report which was
submitted to the finance minister
of India by the Shome Committee
constituted by the Central Board of
Direct Taxes, after the approval of
Prime Minister of India.
(a) GARR Report
(b) CAG Report
(c) Financial Credit Report
(d) Tax Mitigation Report
Answer: (a) GARR Report

33. For what percent, The
Government of India on 20
September 2012 hiked the foreign
investment cap for the
broadcasting service providers?
(a) 65 percent
(b) 74 percent
(c) 80 percent
(d) 54 percent
Answer: (b) 74 percent
34. The Cabinet Committee on
Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 24
September 2012 approved a
package on debt restructuring for
the state-electricity boards. What
was net worth of that package?
(a) 1.90 lakh Crore
(b) 3.5 lakh Crore
(c) 2.6 lakh Crore
(d) 1.25 lakh Crore
Answer: (a) 1.90 lakh crore
35. Which agency was instructed by
the Central Vigilance Commission
on 24 September 2012 to expand
its investigation scope on Coal
Block Allocation to private firms in
between 1993 to 2004?
(a) Directorate of Revenue
Intelligence
(b) Central Bureau of Investigation
(CBI)
(c) CAG Committee
(d) None of These
Answer: (b) Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI)
36. Market regulator Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has
approved a proposed hike of the
government's stake in Industrial
Finance Corporation of India Ltd
(IFCI) to make it a state-run
company. What was hike that
Percent?
(a) 56.25 Percent
(b) 55.57 Percent
(c) 54.35 Percent
(d) 58.65 Percent
Answer: (b) 55.5 Percent
37. State Bank of India, the
country’s largest bank, cuts its
base rate with how much point
making it to 9.75 percent?
(a) 25 basis point
(b) 45 basis point
(c) 35 basis point
(d) 50 basis point
Answer: (a) 15 basis point

Latest National current affairs for West Bengal TET 2012 for Primary Teachers!

# Karnataka to Provide Tamil Nadu
with 12 TMC feet of Cauvery
water: CMC

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Cauvery Monitoring
Committee (CMC) on 7 December
2012 asked Karnataka to provide
Tamil Nadu with 12 TMC feet of
Cauvery water during December
2012

# Top Congress Leader and Former Deputy Chief Minister Narhari Amin Joined BJP:

International/World Current Affairs
2012. Senior party leader and
former Deputy Chief Minister of
Indian National Congress in Gujrat
Narhari Amin on 6 December 2012
switched sides and joined the BJP
with his supporters...

# Union Government of India
cleared Decks for Ambedkar
Memorial:

India Current Affairs 2012. Union
Government of India on 5
December 2012 cleared the decks
for transferring the prime India
12.5 acre United Mill land in
Mumbai to the Maharashtra
government for building a state-of-
the-art memorial to B.R.
Ambedkar...

# Global Terrorism Index Revealed:
India Ranked Among Top Five
Terror-Hit Nations:

India Current Affairs December
2012. New index called Global
Terrorism Index (GTI) prepared by
Australian think tank revealed on 4
December 2012 that India,
Afghanistan and Pakistan were the
most terrorism-hit nations in 2011

# S.A. Ibrahim's Appointment as
Director for Intelligence Bureau
Approved:

India Current Affairs December
2012. The Competent Authority on
3 December 2012 approved
appointment of S. A. Ibrahim the
IPS (MP-77) as officer on Special
Duty in the Intelligence Bureau and
also as the Director for Intelligence
Bureau for a next two years from
the date he acquires his charge or
till the next order that is is further
sent

# Mismatch of signatures on the
cheque would amount to
criminal proceedings: SC

India Current Affairs December
2012. Supreme Court set aside the
verdict of Gujarat High Court in
which it said that the criminal
proceedings for dishonouring
cheque would start off only in case
the cheque is dishonoured because
of insufficient amount in the
account

# Supreme Court Issued Guidelines to Curb Eve Teasing At the Public Places:

India Current Affairs December
2012. Supreme Court on 30
November 2012 issued certain
guidelines in order to put a halt to
eve-teasing

# EPFO (Employees Provident Fund
Organisation) launched its e-
Passbook Portal:

India Current Affairs December
2012. Employees Provident Fund
Organization (EPFO) on 30
November 2012 launched its e-
Passbook portal for its members to
access their accounts online

# Union Government issued New
IT Guidelines to stop its Misuse:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Union government of
India issued new guidelines to stop
misuse of a particular section of
the Information Technology Act

# 220 FEMA Notices Were Issued
By ED in Past Three Years:

India Current Affairs November
2012. Enforcement Directorate
issued 220 notices under Foreign
Exchange Management Act in past
three years

# Union Government approved an
Anti-Piracy Scheme in Audio-
Visual Sector:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Union Government of
India on 27 November 2012
approved a scheme under the 12th
Five Year Plan for carrying out an
anti-piracy initiative in the audio-
visual sector

# Costal Chain of Static Sensors
Positioned along the Coast of
Andhra Pradesh:

India Current Affairs November
2012. A coastal chain of static
sensors positioned along the coast
of Andhra Pradesh was inaugurated
by Ministry of Defence in a
ceremony held at Coast Guard
District Headquarters in
Visakhapatnam

# Union Cabinet of India approved
the National Pharmaceutical
Pricing Policy:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Union Cabinet of India
on 22 November 2012 passed the
National Pharmaceutical Pricing
Policy (NPPA)

# Union Minister of Finance P
Chidambaram Finalised GAAR
Amendment:

India Current Affairs 2012. Union
Finance Minister P. Chidambaram
on 18 November 2012 disclosed
that the Amendments to GAAR, the
controversial law against tax
avoidance through foreign
investments, had been finalised...
The Coal Ministry issued Order
for Deduction of Bank

# Guarantees and de-allocation of
Coal Blocks:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Coal Ministry of India on
17 November 2012 issued orders
for deduction of bank guarantees
of the D B Power and decided on
de-allocation of some coal blocks
following a decision made by an
Inter Ministerial Group

# Rahul Gandhi Appointed Head of
INC Coordination Panel for 2014
Lok Sabha Elections:

India Current Affairs 2012. Rahul
Gandhi, the General Secretary of
Indian National Congress on 15
November 2012 was made the
head of the Congress Coordination
Committee for 2014 Lok Sabha
polls....

# Controversy over Clean Chit
Given to Rajasthan Atomic Power
Plant by IAEA:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The International Atomic
Energy Agency (IAEA) gave clean
chit to Rajasthan Atomic Power
Plant (RAPP) in Rawatbhata

# The Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 came
into Force:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Protection of Children
from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
came into force on 14 November
2012

# President Pranab Mukherjee
Launched Low Cost Aakash
Tablet 2:

India Current Affairs 2012. The
Indian President Pranab Mukherjee
on 11 November 2012 in New
Delhi launched the new tablet
Aakash -2 which is an improved
version of India's super- cheap
tablet...

# Union Cabinet Cleared Setting up of 21 Textile Parks:

India Current Affairs 2012. The
Union Government on 8 November
2012 approved the release of funds
for the establishment of 21
integrated textile parks which was
sanctioned in the 11th Five Year
Plan...

# TRAI issued a CAP of 100 SMSs
on Concession Rates:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Telecom Regulatory
Authority of India (TRAI) on 5
November 2012 issued a cap of
100 SMSs per day at concession
rate

# SC:Criminal Case can’t be
dismissed because of Delay:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Supreme Court of India
on 2nd November 2012 ruled that
a criminal case cannot be
dismissed merely because of delay
in lodging a complaint if the delay
has been reasonably explained

# Government Nod to Grant Ex-
Serviceman Status to the Retired
Paramilitary Staffs:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Union Cabinet of India
on 1 November 2012 gave its nod
to grant retired personnel of
central police and paramilitary
forces the status of ex-Servicemen

# Union Government Body CCEA
lifted Export Ban on Some Milk
Products:

India Current Affairs 2012. The
Union Government body, Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs
(CCEA) on 1 November 2012 lifted
the export ban on milk products,
especially on whole milk powder
(WMP), dairy whitener, infant milk
foods and other milk products till
March 2013...

# Cabinet Reshuffle in India:
Salman Khurshid got External
Affairs Ministry:

India Current Affairs October
2012. The Cabinet Reshuffle that
took place on 28 October 2012
witnessed reshuffling of 5 ministers along with 17 new faces, which were inducted to take on the charge.

# Broadband Network Pact Signed
with 16 States and UT Government:

India Current Affairs 2012.- The
central government on 26 October
2012 signed a tripartite pact with
16 state and UT governments for
laying digital highway and also
formed a special purpose vehicle
BBNL for facilitating connection to
every gram Panchayat with
broadband network

# Union Government Constituted a National Committee on Direct
Cash Transfers:

India Current Affairs October
2012. The Union Government on
25 October 2012 constituted a
National Committee on Direct CashTransfers

# IGMRI and CWC Signed MoU for
Post Harvest Management of
Foodgrains:

India Current Affairs 2012. -
Department of Food & Public
Distribution under Ministry of
Consumer Affairs, and Central
Warehousing Corporation (CWC) on
25 October 2012 signed a
Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) for creating a Centre of
Excellence focusing on capacity
building in the areas of post
harvest management of food grain
by providing training on latest
developments to the aspirants
internationally

# Prime Minister Launched Aadhar
Based Transfer System:

India Current Affairs 2012. Prime
Minister Manmohan Singh on 20
October 2012 launched Aadhaar
Enabled Service Delivery in Dudu
district of Rajasthan to mark the
2nd anniversary of Aadhaar.

# SC Ordered States to have a
Check on Sexual Exploitation of
Women at Workplaces:

India Current Affairs October
2012. The Supreme Court of India
on 19 October 2012 made it
mandatory for every state, union
territory and regulatory bodies to
bring in practice/operations the
legal mechanism for
implementation of the guidelines
issued in Vishaka Case that requires
the employers to observe and
ensure prevention of sexual
harassment of women at
workplaces

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) requires 162 personnel

BHARAT SANCHAR NIGAM LTD.
(BSNL) REQUIRES 162 DEPUTY
GENERAL MANAGERS (DGM) IN
TELECOM OPERATIONS AND
TELECOM FINANCE. APPLY ONLINE
WITHIN 07-12-2012.
1. DGMs in Telecom Operations:
106 Nos. (Gen—48; SC—13; ST—
7; OBC—38; PH—4)
Qualification : Ist Class (60%
marks or more) BE/B.Tech or
equivalent Engineering Degree
from recognized institution only
in Electrical/ Electronics and
Communications/IT/Computer/
Computer Sciences
2. DGMs in Telecom Finance: 56
Nos. (Gen—27; SC—9; ST—4; OBC
—16; PH—2)
Qualification : CA/ICWA/CS
Eligibility Criteria/ Work
Experience: Candidates from
Public Sector, Private Sector and
Government are eligible to apply.
Refer the Advt. for details.(Link
given below)
Pay scale: Rs.32900—58000 plus
other allowances and perks.
Age Limits: maximum 45yrs as
on 01-08-2012. Upper age
relaxation is as per Govt. norms
Shortlist will be prepared on basis
of Qualification and experience of
the candidates. The screened
candidates will sit for Written Test
which will be through Online
Mode on All India basis. The
Written Test to be held on
20-01-2013 .
Online written examination will be
held in five cities i.e., Chennai,
Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and
Guwahati .
Qualified candidates will be later
called for personal interview.
Exact date and venue will be
intimated in due course to the
eligible candidates.
How to Apply: Apply Online from
the official website of BSNL —
www.externalexam.bsnl.co.in
Application fee: Fee can be paid
in form of Bank Demand Draft/
Pay Oder of Rs. 1500/ - for OC &
OBC and Rs. 750/- for SC/ST/PH
candidates drawn in favour of —
AO(Cash), BSNL, New Delhi
After successful submission of
Online application form;
candidates should print-out the
system generated form and then
along with enclosures should send
it by Registered/ Speed Posts at
the following address — “Shri
Shiv Singh, AGM(DE-II), Room
No. 223, Eastern Court,
Janpath, New Delhi-110001.”.
For list of enclosures, refer the
below given link.
Last Date of Online Application:
07th December 2012.
For detailed Advt. and Application
form, please visit the following
link — http://119.226.214.34/
BSNL/Form/