West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Child psychology and pedagogy objective questions with answers

Child development and psychology:  Sample solved objective questions

Set-1

1. The most difficult age for the
development of a child is -
(a) Early childhood
(b) Teen age
(c) Young age
(d) Adult age

2. Heredity and atmosphere are
correlate
(a) Companions
(b) Dependent
(c) Elders
(d) All of these

3. Which of the following factors
comes in the way of girls' personal
rights?
(a) Social Recognition
(b) Family
(c) Gender Difference
(d) All of these

4. Which of the following is not an
accepted stage in Kohlberg's
Theory of Moral Development?
(a) Interpersonal relations
(b) Individualism
(c) Social contract and social rights
(d) Universal principles

5. Which of the following is not
considered a factor of cognition?
(a) Fear
(b) Retreat
(c) Anger
(d) Hunger

6. An ideal teacher should
concentrate
(a) On teaching methods
(b) On the subject being taught
(c) On students and their
behaviours
(d) On all of these

7. The motif of the concept of
curricular flexibility is to benefit
(a) Disabled students
(b) Minority students
(c) Reserved castes
(d) All of these

8. Which of the following is not
considered a tool for formative
assessment
(a) Oral questions
(b) MCQ
(c) Assignments
(d) Projects

9. What do you understand by the
term Peer Group ?
(a) People of same profession
(b) Friends and acquaintances
(c) Family members and relatives
(d) All of these

10. A problem child has
(a) Pampering guardians
(b) Hereditary problems
(c) IQ problems
(d) Physical problems

Answers of WB TET child
development and pedagogy
model questions
1. (b), 2. (d), 3. (d), 4. (c), 5. (b),
6. (d), 7. (a), 8. (b), 9. (d), 10. (a).

Set-2

1. Absenteeism can be tackled
by :
(1) teaching (2) punishing the
students (3) giving the sweets (4)
contacting the parents

2. Discipline means: (1) strict-
behaviour (2) severe punishment
(3) obedience (4) going by the
rules

3. If any girl child does not corne
to school regularly you will
(1) no bother (2) struck off her
name (3) complain to the
Principal (4) meet the parents and
en-
courage them .

4. In co-education you want't to :
(1) make separate rows of boys
and girls (2) you give preference
to boys over girls
(3) you. give preference to none
(4) you deal according to need

5. One of the basic priniclples of
socializing Individuals is :
(1) religion (2)
caste (3) educational (4) imitation

Directions (6-10) :
Which of the' skills do you
consider most essential for a
teacher?

6. (1) Oration skills
(2) Listening skills (3) Managerial
skills, (4) Teaching skills

7. (1) encourage children to
search for knowledge
(2) have all the information for
the children
(3) ability to make children
memorize materials
(4) enable children to do well in
tests

8. (1) identify gifted children (2)
have an understanding of all
children abilities (3) identify
children with learning
disabilities (4) none of the above

9. (1) _ ability to help children un­
derstand texts thoroughly (2)
ability to help children do all the
exercises
(3) ability to raise possible ac­
tions from the texts
(4) ability to help children from
their own opinions on the text

10. (1) to communicate well
{2) to use difficult language
(3) to impress students
(4) to read out the textbook

11. Success in developing values
is mainly dependent upon:
(1) government (2) society  (3)
family (4) teacher

12. Good reading aims at develop­
ing:
(l) understanding (2)
pronunciation (3) sensitivity (4)
increasing factual knowledge

13. The primary duty of a teacher
is to be responsible to his/her:
(1) family (2) students  (3)
society  (4) nation

14. Which of the following is not
related to educational achieve­
ment?
(1) Heredity (2) Experiences (3)
Practice (4) Self learning

15. One of,the students of a class
hardly talks in the class. How
would you encourage him to
express himself?
(1) By orgariising discussions (2)
By encouraging children to take
part in classroom activities
(3) By organizing educational
games/ programmes in which -
children feel like speaking-
(4) By giving good marks to those
who express them'selves well

Answers: 1.4, 2. 4, 3. 4, 4. 4, 5.
3, 5. 4, 7. 1, 8. 2, 9. 4, 10. 1,
11. 3, 12. 1, 13. 2, 14. 1, 15. 3

Set-3 

1. The stage in which a child be­
gins to think logically about
objects and events is known as-
(1) sensory-motor stage (2)
formal operational stage (3) pre-
operational stage (4) concrete
operational stage

2. Four distinct stages of chil­
dren's intellectual development
were identified by-
(1) Kohlberg (2) Erikson (3)
Skinner  (4) Piaget

3. Parents should play
a .............. role in the learning
process of young children.
(1) negative (2) proactive (3)
sympathetic (4) neutral

4. Which is the place where the
child's cognitive development is
defined in the best way?
(1) Playground (2) School and
classroom (3) Auditorium (4)
Home

5. ...is considered a sign of
motivated teaching.
(1) Maximum attendance in class
(2) Remedial work given by the
teacher
(3) Questioning by students
(4) Pin drop silence in the class

6. At lower classes play-way
method of teaching is based on-
(1) theory of physical education
programmes
(2) principles of methods of
teaching
(3) psychological principles of
development and growth
(4) sociological principles of
teaching

7. Dyslexia is associated with
(1) mental disorder (2)
mathematical disorder (3) reading
disorder (4) behavioural disorder

8. Education of children with
special needs should be provided
(1) along with other normal
children (2) by methods
developed for special children ,in
special schools (3) in special
school (4) by special teachers in
special schools

9. In the process of learning,
motivation-
(1) sharpens the memory of
learners (2) differentiates new
learning from old learning (3)
makes learners
think unidirectionally (4) creates
interest for learning among new
learners.

10. A student of grade 5 with
visual deficiency should be-
(1) excused to do a lower level of
work
(2) helped with his/her routine
work by parents and friends
(3) treated normally in the
classroom and provided support
through audio CDs.
(4) given special treatment in the
classroom

Answer key: 1. 3, 2. 4, 3. 3, 4. 2,
5. 2, 6. 3, 7. 3, 8. 1, 9. 4, 10. 3

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Environmental science multiple choice questions/answers (Set-2)

Environmental science multiple choice question /answers:

1. Identify the correct
chronological sequence (oldest to
youngest) in the order of their
formation:
A. Pacific ocean > Atlantic Ocean >
Mediterranean Sea > Indian Ocean
B. Pacific ocean > Atlantic Ocean >
Indian Ocean > Mediterranean Sea
C. Atlantic ocean > Pacific Ocean >
Indian Ocean > Mediterranean Sea
D. Atlantic ocean > Pacific Ocean >
Mediterranean Sea > Indian Ocean
2. Movement of individual rock
masses along structural planes such
as bedding, joints and faults on a
slope is known as:
A. debris slide
B. slump
C. rock slide
D. soil creep
3. Make list I and list II and select
the correct answer using codes
given below the lists:
List I List II
(a) Mid oceanic ridge (i) Alkali rich
basalt
(b) Rift valley (ii) Potash poor
basalt
(c) Island arc (iii) Andesite
(d) Continent (iv) Plateau basalt
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
B. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
4. Consider the following about the
Himalayan orogeny:
(a) The orogeny resulted from the
southward movement
(b) The orogeny began about 25
million years ago
(c) The orogeny closed about 1
million years ago
(d) The Himalayas have a root of
relatively light crustal rocks
projecting into the denser mantle.
Which of the following
combinations is correct?
A (a) and (b)
B. (c) and (d)
C. (a) and (c)
D. (b) and (d)
5. A seismogram records the
following types of earthquake
waves.
(a) L - waves
(b) P - waves
(c) S - waves
The correct chronological sequence
of the arrival of these waves is :
A. (b), (c) and (a)
B. (b), (a) and (c)
C. (c), (a) and (b)
D. (a), (b) and (c) arrive at the
same time
6. Which one of the following
statement is true of braided
streams?
A Width of the channel is less than
its depth
B. Width and depth of the channel
are equal
C. Width of the channel is greater
than its depth
D. Width of the channel is
unrelated to its depth
7. In which of the following
frequency ranges the human ear is
most sensitive to noise:
A. 1 - 2 KHz
B. 100 - 500 Hz
C. 10 - 12 KHz
D. 13 - 16 KHz
9. Assertion (A): Aerosols have
potential for modifying the climate.
Reason (R): Aerosols interact with
both short wave and infra - red
radiations.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
C. (A) is true and (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true
10. Which of the following grows
rapidly resulting in the shrinkage of
water bodies?
A. Phytoplankton
B. Zooplankton
C. Algae
D. Macrophytes
11. Which species of chromium is
toxic in water?
A .Cr+ 2
B. Cr+ 3
C. Cr+6
D. Cr°
12. Chemical compounds having
same crystal structure are called:
A. Polymorphic
B. Pseudomorphic
C. Isomorphic
D. None of the above
13. Micas having an atomic
structure defined as continuous
sheets of tetrahedrons, sharing 3-
oxygen atoms, are called:
A. Inosilicate
B. Phyllosilicate
C. Tectosilicate
D. Sorosilicate
15. If the population growth
follows a logistic curve, the
maximum sustainable yield:
A. is equal to half the carrying
capacity
B. is equal to the carrying capacity
C. depends on growth rate
D. depends on the initial
population
16. Fluidized - bed combustion of
coal is an efficient method of
controlling which of the following
air pollutants:
A. CO
B. SPM and NOx
C. NOx and SOx
D. CO, SPM and SOx
17. The plume rise in a coal based
thermal power plant depends on:
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Atmospheric stability
(c) Momentum of exhaust gases
Identify the correct combination
A. (a) and (b) only
B. (b) and (c) only
C. (a) and (c) only
D. (a), (b) and (c)
18. The efficiency of a solar flat
plate collector depends on:
(a) Thermal efficiency
(b) Optical efficiency
(c) Solar flux
Identify the correct combination
A. (a), (b) and (c)
B. (a) and (b) only
C. (b) and (c) only
D. (a) and (c) only
19. An increase of 10 ppm in the
concentration of CO, in atmosphere
represents approximately an
addition of carbon of amount:
A. 1.2 Kilotons
B. 2.12 Megatons
C. 21.2 Geiga tons
D. 2120 tons
20. Winds blowing down an incline
often due to cold air drainage are
called:
A. Anabatic winds
B. Mountain winds
C. Cyclonic winds
D. Katabatic winds
21. Mixing height is:
A. the height of ground based
inversion
B. the height at which geostrophic
balance occurs
C. the height of constant solar flux
layer
D. the height upto which
atmosphere is churned by
convection
22. For a comprehensive EIA study,
it is to be conducted for:
A. The whole year
B. Any three seasons including
monsoon
C. Three seasons excluding
monsoon
D. The worst season
24. In initial environmental
examination, the following are
considered:
A. No quantitative data
B. Primary data
C. Secondary data
D. On site data for at least a
season
25. Which of the following forest
types is most widespread in India?
A. Tropical evergreen forest
B. Tropical deciduous forest
C. Temperate forest
D. Scrub forest
26. The presence of
pneumatophores is seen in:
A. Desert plants
B. Climbers and lianas
C. Trees of tropical moist forests
D. Mangroves
27. Ramsar convention is related to
conservation of:
A. Tiger
B. Elephants
C. Crop genetic diversity
D. Wetlands
28. A significant effect of climate
change on account of global
warming on terrestrial plants will
be on:
A. Stomatal mechanism
B. Amino acid composition of
cereal grains
C. Phenology
D. Bark formation in trees
29. A tree, which is popular in
social forestry programme in India,
is:
A. Shorea robusta
B. Ailanthus excelsa
C. Cedrus deodara
D. Callistemon lanceolatus
30. The great Indian Rhino has its
natural home in:
A. Kaziranga National Park
B. Corbett National Park
C. Sunderbans
D. Kanha National Park
31. According to the Botanical
Survey of India, the total number
of plant species in India is about:
A. 45,000
B. 75,000
C. 17,000
D. 30,000
32. Assertion (A): Bt cotton is a
transgenic crop which has been
introduced iri India, but is being
opposed on environmental
grounds. Reason (R): CrylAc protein
in Bt cotton has been found to be
toxic and allergenic to human
beings.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true
33. Oxygen toxicity (in humans) is
caused by:
A. Inhalation of molecular oxygen
B. Generation of free radicals
C. Interactions of singlet oxygen
with membrane
D. None of the above
34. C 2F 3 C1 3 gas:
A. absorbs ultraviolet radiations
B. affects troposphere ozone
C. forms aerosols in stratosphere
D. absorbs infrared radiations
35. Which of the following shows
bioaccumulation and contaminate
food chains?
A. Pesticides
B. Polychlorinated biphenyls
C. PAN
D. All of the above
36. Removal of which of the
following impurities from
contaminated water requires the of
coagulants:
A. Colloidal impurities
B. dissolved solids
C. micro organisms
D. all of the above
38. The most efficient method of
biodegradable urban solid waste
management is:
A. Landfills
B. Pelletisation
C. Gasification
D. Composting
39. Pollutants in soil can be broken
down by micro organisms. The
process is called:
A. Probiotics
B. Bioremediation
C. Bioaugmentation
D. None of the above
40. A thermodynamic function of
state which is constant during a
reversible isobaric isothermal
process is:
A. Geothermal potential
B. Thermodynamic efficiency
C. Enthalpy
D. Gibb's free energy
41. t - statistic is useful for testing:
A. Variances
B. Overall goodness of fit of a
regression model
C. null hypothesis for a regression
coefficient
D. constancy of the mean
43. 1 metric ton of average coal in
energy terms is equivalent to:
A. 2000 cubic feet of natural gas
B. 24000 cubic feet of natural gas
C. 1.5 barrels of oil
D. 2.0 barrels of oil
45. In marine environment
Carbonate Compensation Depth
(CCD) is defined as depth at which:
A. Carbonate begins to dissolve
B. Carbonate begins to precipitate
C. Carbonate begins to precipitate
D. Bicarbonate begins to dissolve
46. In an idealised Magneto
hydrodynamic power plant, the
maximum power output varies with
fuel velocity (u) as:
A. U
B. U 2
C. U 3
D. U 1/2
48. In humid climate, weathering
of various types "of rocks occurs.
Identify the correct sequence
in order of decreasing weathering:
A. Basalt > Dunite > Granite
B. Basalt > Granite > Dunite
C. Dunite > Granite > Basalt
D. Dunite > Basalt > Granite
49. Match list I and list II and
select the correct answer using
codes given below the lists
List I List II
(a) Ozone depletion (i) Basel
convention
(b) CO-, reduction (ii) Kyoto
Protocol
(c) Sustainable development (iii) Rio
Summit lopment
(d) Hazardous waste (iv) Montreal
Protocol Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
B. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
C. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
50. The lion - tailed macaque is
endemic to:
A. Andaman and Nicobar islands
B. Lakshadweep
C. Nilgiri
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Answers
1   2   3   4   5   6   7   9  10
A  C   B   D  A   C  B   B   A
11 12 13 15 16 17 18 19 20
B    C    D  A   D   D   D  B  B
21 22 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C    A   B   B   C   D   A   A   A
31 32 33 34 35 36 38 39 40
A    A   B   B   D  B  D  B   D
41 43 45 46 48 49 50
B    D   A  C   A   B  A

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Environmental science multiple choice questions/answers (Set-1)

Environmental science study materials:
1. Which of the following
statement about Fjord is incorrect?
A. Most Fjords were formed due to
raise in sea level after the melting
of Pleistocene ice
B. It is an emergent coast that was
originally submerged
C. It is a long narrow inlet of the
sea bound by steep slopes
D. It is a glaciated valley that has
been inundated by the sea

3. Residence time of water
molecule in the ocean is:
A. 3.5 years
B. 3.5 million years
C. 35 years
D. 35000 years

4. Hyperplasia means:
A. excessive motility of a muscle
B. Voracious eating
C. Abnormal increase in number of
cells
D. An increase in size of a cell

5. Carbon dioxide absorbs radiation
in the range:
A. 5.5 and 7 microns
B. Greater than 27 microns
C. 8 to 13 microns
D. 0.1 to 30 microns

6. Sodium is usually estimated by
which of the following analytical
technique:
A. Flame Photometry
B. Coulometry
C. High pressure liquid
chromotography
D. Visible spectrophotometry

7. Which combination of the
following elements constitutes a
major portion of earth crust:
A. Oxygen and Silicon
B. Oxygen and Iron
C. Silicon and Iron
D. Aluminium and Iron

8. Assertion (A):
Chlorofluorocarbons deplete ozone.
Reason (R): These compounds
contain Chlorine, Bromine and
Fluorine.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

10. Maximum Density of water is
at:
A. 4°C
B. 0°C
C. 100°C
D. 272°C

11. The cause of lung cancer
Mesothalemia is:
A. Asbestos
B. Arsenic
C. Mercury
D. Chromium

12. Which of the following pattern
of evolution accounts for all the
diversity present on earth today?
A .Microevolution
B. Megaevolution
C. Biodiversity
D. Speciation

13. Group of individuals of the
same species that share common
attributes are called:
A. Community
B. Population
C. Ecotype
D. Society

14. Which one of the following is
the correct food chain?
A. Algae -> Daphnia -> Dragon Fly
Nymph -» Newt -» Grass Snake
B. Daphnia -» Dragon Fly Nymph ->
Newt -» Algae -> Grass Snake
C. Grass Snake -> Newt -» Dragon
Fly Nymph Daphnia Algae
D. Newt -» Grass Snake -» Dragon
Fly Nymph -» Algae -> Daphnia

16 . Assertion (A): Monsoonal
rainfall is very high both on the
west coast and northeast India.
Reason (R): The duration of
monsoon over west coast and
northeast India is longer than
other parts of India.
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

19. Which one of the following
statements regarding El-NINO is
NOT true?
A. It is an extension of equatorial
current towards the western coast
of South America.
B. It is an occasional warm current
leading to an increase of about
10°C in subsurface water
temperature.
C. It develops as temporary
replacement of usual cold Peruvian
Current.
D. It causes an increase in plankton
thriving in cold Peruvian current.

20. The process of alluviation
indicates:
A .Removal of particles from the
upper layer of soil
B. Removal of particles from lower
layer of soil
C. Deposition of soil particles in
sub-soil layer
D. Transportation of soil particles
in the B-horizon

21. Which one of the following is
the cleanest source of energy?
A. Hydropower
B. Fossil fuel
C. Nuclear power
D. Wind energy

22. Match the items in List - I with
List - II and select the correct
answer using codes given below:
List I List - II
(a) CFC (i) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
(b) C0 2 (ii) Global Warming
(c) BOD (iii) Ozone depletion
(d) MIC (iv) Water pollution Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

23. The global warming efficiency
of a CFC molecule in relation to a
CO-, molecule is higher by a factor
of:
A. 125
B. 25
C. 20,000
D. 1500

24. Arsenic problem in India is
primarily due to:
A. Overexploitation of arsenopyrite
in the hinterland
B. Overexploitation of coal in Bihar
and Bengal
C. Overexploitation of ground
water in the affected areas
D. Overexploitation of surface
water in the affected areas

25. Acid rain is caused by:
A. CO and CO2 ,
B. SO 2 ,and 0 2
C. S0 2 and NO" 2
D. NO 2 and O 2

26. What will be the outcome of
Eutrophication of surface waters?
A. Overproduction of biomass
B. Decrease in nitrogen
concentration
C. Decrease in phosphorus
concentration
D. Decrease in both nitrogen and
phosphorus concentrations.

27. Assertion (A): Negatively
charged soil particles attract
positive ions like Ca++ and Mg ++
Reason (R): The attraction keeps the
ions at soil level for ready
availability.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

29. Cost Benefit analysis is
required in case of proposals
involving clearance of forest land:
A. Greater than 1Oha but less than
20ha
B. Greater than 20ha
C. Greater than 5ha but less than
1Oha
D. Greater than 40ha only

30. Ecologically sensitive and
important areas, breeding and
spawning grounds of marine life
etc., are categorized in coastal
Regulation Zone as:
A. CRZ - IV
B. CRZ - II
C. CRZ - III
D. CRZ - I

31. A management tool comprising
a systematic, periodic and objective
evaluation of how well an
environmental organization,
management and equipment are
performing is known as:
A. Raw material balance
B. Input - output analysis
C. Acturities at site
D. Environmental audit

33. Match the items in List - I with
List - II and select the correct
answer using codes given below:
List - I List - II
• (a) Montreal Conven- (i) Ozone
depletion tion
(b) Rio - Summit (ii) Greenhouse
gas
(c) Ramsah Conven- (iii) Convention
on tion Biological diversity
(d) Kyoto Protocol (iv) Wetlands
convention
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

34. The least preferred technique
in the disposal of municipal solid
waste is:
A. incineration
B. composting
C. land filling
D. bricketting

35. Bacterial decomposition of
biological material under aerobic
condition is:
A. Fermentation
B. Fertilization
C. Contamination
D. Composting

36. When you go for shopping,
what are you expected to do to
save environment?
A. Shop for products that have as
little packaging as possible.
B. In any store, use a bag even it is
not needed.
C. Do not reduce the frequency of
shopping.
D. Buy paper towels and napkins.

38. In the analysis of 15 water
samples, Ca and Mg gave a
correlation of +0.95. It means:
A. Ca came from soil and Mg came
from biota
B. Ca and Mg both came from the
same type of water
C. Ca and Mg are both cogenetic
D. Ca and Mg came from different
sources.

39. If a piece of metal weighs
10.2g in air, 8.6g in water and
7.8g in another liquid, then what
will be the specific gravity of the
liquid?
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 3.0

40. The geometric mean of the
numbers 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 is:
A. 12
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32

41. The correlation coefficient
between the variables X, Y as given
in the following table:
X 1 3 4 6 8 9 11 14
Y 1 2 4 4 5 7 8 9 is:
A. -0.977
B. -0.517
C. +0.977
D. +0.217

42. Climatic stress is caused by
insufficient and/or excessive
regime of:
A. Temperature
B. Humidity
C. Solar radiation
D. All the above

43. The chemical that is used to
ripen mangoes is:
A .Calcium sulphide
B. Calcium carbide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Calcium chloride
44. Which two of the following
statements regarding ISO 14000
series of standards are true?
Answer choosing the code given
below:
(i) ISO 14000 standards are based
on a principle assumption that
better environmental management
will lead to better environmental
performance.
(ii) ISO M°C/u standards are
regulatory standards developed by
ISO
(iii) ISO 14000 standards are
market driven and therefore are
based on voluntary involvement of
all interests in the market place.
(iv) The adoption of ISO 14000 is a
one time commitment
A (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)

45. Organisms that generate energy
using light are:
A. oligotrophs
B. chaemorganotrophs
C. chaemolithotrophs
D. photoautotrophs

47. Land use pattern is usually
studied by the following technique:
A. Aerial photography
B. Satellite imaging
C. Satellite imaging and G. I. S.
D. Satellite imaging, G. I. S. and G.
P. S.

48. To conserve coral reefs the
Govt, of India declared one of the
following as Marine Park:
A. Gulf of Kutch
B. Lakshadweep islands
C. Gulf of Mannar
D. Andaman Islands

49. Which one of the following
does not contribute to
conservation of water?
A Waste water treatment
B. Waste land development
C. Water shed protection
D. Rain water harvesting

50. Particle size in soil can be
classified as clay: 1-4 micron. Silt:
4-62 micron. Sand: 62-1000
micron; Boulder: >1000 micron. It
is hence correct to suggest that in
nature particle size distribution
follows:
A. Binomial distribution
B. Lognormal distribution
C. Linear distribution
D. Normal distribution
Answers
1   3  4   5   6   7   8   10
D  C  C  A   A   A   C   A
11 12 13 14 16 19 20
B    C    C   A  B   A  C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 29 30
D    A   A   C   C   A   A   A   D
31 33 34 35 36 38 39 40
D    C   D   A   A   D   C  C
41 42 43 44 45 47 48 49 50
C    D    B  A   D   B   B   B  D