Improve your English vocabulary: Synonyms

Know your English vocabulary:

Word         Synonym    Synonym

1.abandon  -discard ,vacate

2.accord- agree ,grant

3.adversity - difficulty ,misfortune

4. affluent-  plentiful ,rich

4. aggravate - annoy ,infuriate

5. alleviate-  lighten, mitigate

6. amenable - agreeable ,favorable

7. anguish - distress, sorrow

8. apathetic-  dispirited ,lifeless

9. arrogant-  disdainful ,imperious

10.astonish- confound ,overwhelm

11. atrocious- appalling, detestable

12. augment- add, enlarge

13. avoid-  ignore, shun

14. awkward- graceless ,inept

15.baffle- confuse,  deceive

16.banal-  common, plain

17.barren-  desolate, sterile

18.berate-  criticize, disapprove

19.betray- deceive ,fool

20.bias -inclination, predisposition

21.bitter-  acrid, sour

22.blend-  combine, mix

23.bliss- happiness, joy

24.bluff- boast, feign

25.bold-  daring, fearless

26.bonus-  award, gift

27.bother-  annoy, irritate

28.brief - concise, short

29.brilliant-  clever , intelligent

30.brisk-  fast, swift

31.budget-  allot, plan

32.candid-  honest, truthful

33.caricature- cartoon, imitation

34.casual- informal, natural

35.category- classification, division

36.cease - desist, stop

37.chaotic-  disordered, messy

38.cherish - esteem, love

39.circumvent-  avoid, go around

40.commemorate-celebrate,honor

41.compensate-balance,recompense

42.competent- able, capable

43.conceive-  design, plan

44.confirmation-acknowledgement, proof

45.contradict-  deny, oppose

46.contribution-  donation, grant

47.courteous - polite, well-mannered

48.craving - desire, longing

49.credulous - confident, trustful

50.damp-  moist, wet

51.dare -challenge, defy

52.decay -decline ,rot

53.decent -honorable ,pure

54.dense -filled ,packed

55.designate -name ,select

56.detain- hold ,keep

57.disclose -announce ,reveal

58.dogma -belief ,view

59.durable -constant ,lasting

60.dwindle- abate ,diminish

61.eager -earnest, keen

62.eccentric- abnormal, idiosyncratic

63.elaborate -embellish, enhance

64.emanate- arise ,radiate

65.embezzle- purloin ,steal

66.eminent -distinguished, prominent

67.encourage- foster, induce

68.endure- last ,persist

69.essential -cultured ,learned

70.essential- basic ,necessary

71.estimate -guess ,predict

72.evaluate- appraise, judge

73.exhaust- deplete, empty

74.exhilarated -cheerful ,zestful

75.explicit- definite ,specific

76.fastidious- exacting ,particular

77.federation -alliance ,band

78.feeble -helpless ,infirm

79.fervor- intensity ,passion

80.feud- argument ,dispute

81.filth- dirt, squalor

82.flatter- compliment ,praise

83.fleet -nimble ,swift

84.frivolous- inconsequential, trivial

86.frugal- prudent ,saving

86.furious -angry ,outraged

87.generous- benevolent ,unselfish

88.genuine -actual ,real

89.glare- gleam, glisten

90.gloomy -cheerless ,dim

91.goad -provoke ,badger

92.grasp -grab ,hold

93.greed -avarice ,longing

94.guarantee- assure ,pledge

95.guile- cunning ,deceit

96.gullible -credulous, unsuspicious

97.habitual -accustomed, regular

98.handicap -disability, disadvantage

99.harass -annoy ,disturb

100.harmless- innocuous, inoffensive

101.harsh -hard ,coarse

102.hasty -abrupt ,hurried

103.haughty -arrogant ,pretentious

104.humiliate- humble ,shame

105.hygiene -cleanliness, sanitation

106.hypocrisy- duplicity ,falseness

107.ideal -goal ,perfection

108.idle- lazy ,unoccupied

109.ignorant -stupid ,unintelligent

110.illogical -incongruent, rambling

111.illustrious -eminent, famous

112.imitate -copy ,reflect

113.immense- huge ,mammoth

114.impartial -candid ,impersonal

115.impatient -anxious ,eager

116.implicate -accuse ,insinuate

117.importune- beg ,solicit

118.inadvertent -accidental ,
unintentional

119.indifferent -apathetic, disinterested

120.isolate -detach ,quarantine

121.jargon -argot ,slang

122.jovial- genial ,merry

123.judge- estimate ,referee

124.justification -excuse ,reason

125.juvenile -adolescent ,immature

126.keen -clever ,observant

127.label -brand ,classify

128.labor -toil ,work

129.lead -direct ,proceed

130.lean- slim ,thin

131.leave -abandon ,desert

132.liberal -copious ,unrestrained

133.liberal -lenient ,open-minded

134.limitation -boundary, constraint

135.lucid -clear ,understandable

136.lucky -auspicious, fortunate

137.mad- furious, irate

138.manage -administer ,control

139.manipulate -control ,shape

140.marginal -borderline ,limited

141.match -agree ,correspond

142.maze -complexity, labyrinth

143.meditate -ponder ,think

144.memorial -commemoration ,
monument

145.mention -allude, refer to

146.merge -blend ,fuse

147.narrow -confined ,restricted

148.nature -aspect ,character

149.necessary -mandatory, requisite

150.negate -contradict ,refute

151.negligent -careless ,remiss

152.negotiate- bargain ,deal

153.nice -affable ,benign

154.noble- aristocratic, distinguished

155.novice -beginner, nonprofessional

156.nuisance -annoyance ,offense

157.obedient -faithful, loyal

158.objection -disapproval ,protest

159.obligatory -compulsory, required

160.observe- notice, watch

161.obvious -conspicuous ,definite

162.offend -anger ,irritate

163.offer -bid ,proposal

164.omen -premonition ,sign

165.omit -exclude ,remove

166.opportune -advantageous ,
auspicious

167.pacify -appease ,placate

168.pain -ache ,discomfort

169.paramount -chief ,leading

170.partisan -biased, dogmatic

171.passive -inactive, lethargic

172.pause -break ,cease

173.permeate- diffuse ,disseminate

174.perpetuate -endure ,preserve

175.perplex -astonish, baffle

176.persecute -afflict ,harass

177.radiate -effuse, emanate

178.radical -basic ,fundamental

179.range- anger ,furor

180.rank -arrange ,classify

181.realize -accomplish ,fulfill

182.recalcitrant- obstinate, stubborn

183.receptacle -container, repository

184.reconcile -atone ,conciliate

185.regret- deplore, grieve

186.reliable -dependable, trustworthy

187.sanction -approval ,permit

188.scope -aim ,extent

189.section -division ,portion

190.settle -adjust ,compromise

191.shallow -superficial ,trivial

192.shrewd -careful ,calculating

193.significant- distinctive, important

194.slight -delicate ,slender

195.spontaneous- impromptu ,
unplanned

196.spread -announce ,broadcast

197.stabilize -balance ,steady

198.tame -domesticate ,subdue

199.tangle -intertwine ,twist

200.temper -mood ,nature

201.tendency- inclination ,trend

202.term- cycle, duration

203.thrift -conservation ,prudence

204.tough -aggressive ,unyielding

205.transfer -convey ,exchange

206.tumult -agitation ,commotion

207.turbulent -disordered, violent

208.vain- boastful ,inflated

209.valid -authorized ,legitimate

210.variety- assortment ,diversify

211.verify -authenticate, substantiate

22000 Constables and Riflemen in CRPF, ITDP,BSF and CISF!!

STAFF SELECTION
COMMISSION (SSC)
RECRUITES 22000
CONSTABLE (GENERAL DUTY)
AND RIFLEMAN (GENERAL
DUTY) IN ITBPF, CISF, BSF,
CRPF, SSB AND ASSAM
RIFLES.
No. of vacancies varies from
State to State (State wise
vacancies). Below given are total
vacancies according to Force
wise —
FOR MALE CANDIDATES
ASSAM RIFLES—
Males: 1657 Nos. (Gen—864;
OBC—322; SC—218; ST—253)
Females: 192 Nos. (Gen—101;
OBC—35; SC—25; ST—31)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 416 Nos. (Gen—217;
OBC—19; SC—19; ST—4)
BORDER SECURITY FORCE
(BSF)
Males: 3245 Nos. (Gen—1689;
OBC—746; SC—503; ST—307)
Females: 800 Nos. (Gen—419;
OBC—184; SC—124; ST—73)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 48 Nos. (Gen—26;
OBC—3; ST—19)
CENTRAL INDUSTRIAL
SECURITY FORCE (CISF)
Males: 900 Nos. (Gen—455;
OBC—243; SC—135; ST—67)
Females: 100 Nos. (Gen—51;
OBC—27; SC—15; ST—7)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 811 Nos. (Gen—410;
OBC—169; SC—156; ST—76)
CENTRAL RESERVE POLICE
FORCE (CRPF)
Males: 10793 Nos. (Gen—4943;
OBC—2500; SC—2247; ST—
1103)
Females: 854 Nos. (Gen—100;
OBC—439; SC—192; ST—140)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 200 Nos. (Gen—100;
OBC—42; SC—39; ST—19)
INDO TIBETAN BORDER
POLICE FORCE (ITBPF)
Males: 168 Nos. (Gen—86; OBC
—40; SC—26; ST—16)
Females: 662 Nos. (Gen—343;
OBC—152; SC—152; ST—104)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 42 Nos. (Gen—27;
OBC—5; SC—6; ST—4)
SASHASTRA SEEMA BAL (SSB)
Males: 765 Nos. (Gen—398; OBC
—173; SC—115; ST—79)
Females: Nil
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 166 Nos. (Gen—100;
OBC—20; SC—22; ST—24)
Vacancies were available State
wise. For detailed State wise
vacancies, please refer the
Advertisement.
Vacancies according to State –
West Bengal is given below—
STATE: WEST BENGAL ; POST:
CONSTABLE (GENERAL DUTY)
1. ASSAM RIFLES: Male—97
Nos.; Female—11 nos;
2. BSF: Male— 224 Nos.; Female
—58 Nos.
3. CISF: Male—62 Nos.; Female
—7 Nos.; BG Districts—443 Nos.
4. CRPF: 749 Nos.; Female—58
Nos.; BG Districts—109 Nos.
5. ITBP: 12 Nos.; Female—47
Nos.
6. SSB: 53 Nos.; Female – Nil.
Qualification Required:
Matriculation (Class 10 pass) pass
candidates may apply for the
post.
Physical Standards:
a) Height: For Males : 170 cms;
For Females : 157 cms.
b) Chest: For males only –
Unexpanded : 80 cms. -
Expanded : Min 85 cms.
c) Weight: Proportional to height
and age as per medical standard.
Cut-off in Height and Chest for
reserved and Hilly area
candidates/ tribals is as per Govt.
norms (Refer the Advt.)
Pay scale: Rs.5200—20200 and
Grade pay: Rs.2000/-
Age Limits: between 18yrs to
23yrs as on 01-01-2013. Upper
age relaxation is as per norms.
Application fee: Rs.50/- only
through fee challan deposition
from any branch of State Bank
of India or Net banking (In case
of Offline application; through
Central Recruitment Fee Stamp/
CRFS).
Women candidates/ SC/ ST/ PH
candidates were exempted from
Application fee.
How to Apply: Apply Online or
Offline.
For Online application form, visit
the official website of SSC —
http://ssconline.nic.in .
For Offline application form;
candidates may download the
Application Form from above
website.
The recruitment will comprise of
Physical Standards Test (PST),
Physical Efficiency Test (PET),
Written Examination and Medical
Examination.
Last Date of Application—
Online Application form can be
submitted from dated 15th
December to 11th January 2013.
(18th January 2013 in case of
candidates applying offline from
far flung areas/ States)
Written Examination will be on
12-05-2013.
Before applying for the posts;
please go through the officially
released Advertisement. For
detailed Advt. and Application
form, please visit the following
link — http://ssconline.nic.in/

Tips for solving multiple choice questions in competitive examination!

The entrance exams mode requires
a drastic change in strategy and
orientation for students compared
to the board exams. Most of them
are objective type. This needs a
little bit of reorientation in the test
taking approach. Cracking entrance
exams is all about dedicated
practice on test types that are
relevant, followed by revision tests
and feedback. You may follow some
tips that will put you in good stead,
no matter which entrance exam
you are appearing for.
Start thinking about a strategy.
You need to play to your
strengths.
You need to learn to skip
questions.
You have to identify the areas
you are not so comfortable with.
It is advisable to experiment in
your practice tests.
Learn to master multiple choice
questions.
Multiple choice questions (MCQs)
are very different from subjective
questions. They provide for a lot of
intelligent guesswork. So one needs
to consciously ask while analysing
tests, "Is there a way to answer this
question using the choices?"
Time management holds the key
in all entrance exams.
The core value of effective time
management is focusing on the
right things.
Remember the '80:20 Rule'.
Usually 80 per cent of unfocussed
efforts generate merely 20 per
cent of results meaning the rest of
the 80 per cent results are attained
with 20 per cent efforts only.
Focus and effective time
management can be critical for
your final score.
Revise all the fundamental
concepts and identify and attempt
as many types of questions as
possible in a given topic.
Analyse the marking pattern for
the exams that you're appearing
for.
Negative marking means you
must select questions you think
you can answer, with care. If the
paper does not have any negative
marking, try and answer all
questions, even if you're not sure
of the answer.
Maintain your cool while taking the
test. Remember there are many
questions that you can attempt. Do
not get stuck at questions that take
inordinately long time. The best
attempts are made by those who
manage to read through the entire
paper. You can do that only if you
master the art of test taking. All
the Best!

Life Insurance Corporation of India requires 12529 Direct sales executive (DSE)

Life
Insurance Corporation of India
(LIC of India) is recruiting
12529 Direct Sales Executives
(DSE) for various offices of the
corporation. The engagement will
be on contractual basis for 3yrs
under the jurisdiction of Central/
East Central / East Zone/ North
Central/ Northern Zone/ South
Central/ Southern/ Western Zonal
Office. Eligible candidates may
apply online. Qualification
requirement and brief
information is given below –
LIFE INSURANCE CORPORATION
OF INDIA (LICI) REQUIRES 12529
DIRECT SALES EXECUTIVES (DSE)
UNDER JURISDICTION OF
DIFFERENT ZONAL OFFICE. LAST
DATE: 28/12/2012.
ZONAL WISE VACANCIES GIVEN
BELOW —
1. No. of vacancies in Central
Zonal Offices: 877 Nos.
— Bhopal: 87 Nos.
— Bilaspur: 116 Nos.
— Gwalior: 111 Nos.
— Indore: 88 Nos.
— Jabalpur: 116 Nos.
— Raipur: 120 Nos.
— Satna: 110 Nos.
— Shahdol: 129 Nos.
2. No. of Vacancies in Central
Zonal Offices: 1312 Nos.
— Patna 1: 123 Nos.
— Patna 2: 112 Nos.
— Bhagalpur: 34 Nos
— Begusarai: 121 Nos.
— Muzzafarpur: 123 Nos.
— Jamshedpur: 107 Nos.
— Hazaribagh: 97 Nos.
— Bhubaneswar: 100 Nos.
— Cuttack: 108 Nos.
— Berhampur: 134 Nos.
— Sambalpur: 142 Nos.
3. No. of Vacancies in Eastern
Zonal Offices: 721 Nos.
— Asansol: 55 Nos.
— Bardhaman: 40 Nos.
— Bongaigaon: 50 Nos.
— Guwahati: 50 Nos.
— Jorhat: 60 Nos.
— Kharagpur: 40 Nos.
— KMDO-I: 87 Nos.
— KMDO-II: 115 Nos.
— KSDO: 99 Nos.
— Silchar: 75 Nos
— Jalpaiguri: 50 Nos.
4. No. of vacancies in North
Central Zonal Offices: 1537
Nos.
— Agra: 104 Nos.
— SO Dibiyapur: 12 Nos.
— SO Etawah: 12 Nos.
— Aligarh: 80 Nos.
— Allahabad: 132 Nos.
— SO Khaga: 12 Nos
— SO Pratapgarh: 12 Nos.
— Bareilly: 123 Nos.
— Shahjahanpur: 12 Nos.
— SO Hardoi: 12 Nos.
— Dehradun: 54 Nos.
— BO-1 Hardwar: 12 Nos.
— BO-2 Roorkee: 12 Nos.
— Faizabad: 86 Nos.
— BO-1 Saharanpur: 12 Nos.
— BO Raibereli: 12 Nos.
— BO Barabanki: 12 Nos.
— Gorakhpur: 87 Nos.
— CAB Azamgarh: 12 Nos.
— CAB Gorakhpur: 12 Nos.
— Haldwani: 91 Nos.
— Rudrapur: 12 Nos
— Kashipur: 12 Nos.
— Kanpur: 87 Nos.
— SO Gwaltoli: 12 Nos.
— SO Panki: 12 Nos.
— CAB Jhansi: 12 Nos.
— Lucknow: 98 Nos.
— SO B&AC Sitapur: 12 Nos.
— SO Chinhat: 12 Nos.
— Meerut: 114 Nos.
— CAB Moradabad: 12 Nos.
— Noida: 119 Nos.
— Varanasi: 86 Nos.
— Mirzapur: 12 Nos.
— Shakthi Nagar: 12 Nos.
5. No. of Vacancies in South
Central Zonal Offices: 1486
Nos.
— Bangalore 1: 239 Nos.
— Bangalore 2 : 266 Nos.
— Belgaum: 135 Nos.
— Gulbarga: 129 Nos.
— Warangal: 231 Nos.
— Mangalore: 253 Nos.
— Vijaywada: 96 Nos.
6. No. of Vacancies in Southern
Zonal Offices: 1815 Nos.
— Chennai 1: 152 Nos.
— Chennai 2: 278 Nos.
— Coimbatore: 73 Nos.
— Madurai: 77 Nos.
— Salem: 79 Nos.
— Tirunelveli: 236 Nos.
— Trichy: 262 Nos.
— Vellore: 158 Nos.
— Ernakulam: 129 Nos.
— Kottayam: 70 Nos.
— Kozhikode: 86 Nos.
— Thiruvananthapuram: 98 Nos.
— Thrissur: 97 Nos.
7. No. of vacancies in Western
Zonal Office: 2378 Nos.
— Ahmedabad: 120 Nos.
— Amravati: 119 Nos.
— Aurangabad: 72 Nos.
— Bhavnagar: 120 Nos.
— Gandhinagar: 79 Nos.
— Goa: 150 Nos.
— Kolhapur: 128 Nos.
— Mumbai – I: 123 Nos.
— Mumbai – II: 130 Nos.
— Nadiad: 111 Nos.
— Nagpur: 123 Nos.
— Nanded: 125 Nos.
— Nashik: 132 Nos.
— Pune – I: 114 Nos.
— Pune – 2: 135 Nos.
— Rajkot: 114 Nos.
— Satara: 130 Nos.
— Surat: 114 Nos.
— Thane: 130 Nos.
— Vadodara: 109 Nos.
8. No. of Vacancies in LIC
Northern Zonal Offices: 2403
Nos.
— Delhi – I: 113 Nos.
— Delhi – II: 110 Nos.
— Delhi – III: 126 Nos.
— Delhi – II: 140 Nos.
— Delhi – III: 130 Nos.
— Chandigarh: 129 Nos.
— Chandigarh: 115 Nos.
— Jaipur – I: 82 Nos.
— Ludhiyana: 125 Nos.
— Jalandhar: 99 Nos.
— Jodhpur: 95 Nos.
— Ajmer: 108 Nos.
— Karnal: 128 Nos.
— Udaipur: 121 Nos.
— Srinagar: 138 Nos.
— Amritsar: 121 Nos.
— Shimla: 73 Nos.
— Rohtak: 150 Nos.
— Jaipur – II: 150 Nos.
— Bikaner: 150 Nos.
Qualification Required: Bachelor
degree. Preference may be given
to those applicants who possess a
Bachelor Degree or Diploma in
Marketing /Management.
Knowledge in English and fluency
in Regional/ local language is
desirable. Knowledge in computer
application such as MS Word/
Excel/ Etc will be taken as
additional advantage.
Age Limits: between 21yrs to
35yrs as on 01/12/2012. Upper
age relaxation is as per norms.
Selection of the candidates will be
through Written Examination
followed by an Interview. Actual
date and venue of Written
Examination and Interview will be
intimated in due course.
Application fee: Rs.100/- is to be
paid in cash through cash counter
of any Branch office of Life
Insurance Corporation of India
under Account Code – 114034.
SC/ST candidates are not
require to deposit Application
fee.
How to Apply: Interested
candidates may apply Online from
the official website of LIC —
http://www.licindia.in/
careers.htm
On successful acceptance of
online application form, a unique
Registration number and
Password is generated and
displayed to the candidate. The
candidate is given the option to
print the application form after
completing the application to
keep for his/her reference. The
candidate can also reprint the
application subsequently till the
last date for application by
providing (i) Registration
Number and (ii) Password.
For detailed Advt. and Application
form, please visit the following
link — http://www.licindia.in/
careers_pop0002.htm

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Child psychology and pedagogy objective questions with answers

Child development and psychology:  Sample solved objective questions

Set-1

1. The most difficult age for the
development of a child is -
(a) Early childhood
(b) Teen age
(c) Young age
(d) Adult age

2. Heredity and atmosphere are
correlate
(a) Companions
(b) Dependent
(c) Elders
(d) All of these

3. Which of the following factors
comes in the way of girls' personal
rights?
(a) Social Recognition
(b) Family
(c) Gender Difference
(d) All of these

4. Which of the following is not an
accepted stage in Kohlberg's
Theory of Moral Development?
(a) Interpersonal relations
(b) Individualism
(c) Social contract and social rights
(d) Universal principles

5. Which of the following is not
considered a factor of cognition?
(a) Fear
(b) Retreat
(c) Anger
(d) Hunger

6. An ideal teacher should
concentrate
(a) On teaching methods
(b) On the subject being taught
(c) On students and their
behaviours
(d) On all of these

7. The motif of the concept of
curricular flexibility is to benefit
(a) Disabled students
(b) Minority students
(c) Reserved castes
(d) All of these

8. Which of the following is not
considered a tool for formative
assessment
(a) Oral questions
(b) MCQ
(c) Assignments
(d) Projects

9. What do you understand by the
term Peer Group ?
(a) People of same profession
(b) Friends and acquaintances
(c) Family members and relatives
(d) All of these

10. A problem child has
(a) Pampering guardians
(b) Hereditary problems
(c) IQ problems
(d) Physical problems

Answers of WB TET child
development and pedagogy
model questions
1. (b), 2. (d), 3. (d), 4. (c), 5. (b),
6. (d), 7. (a), 8. (b), 9. (d), 10. (a).

Set-2

1. Absenteeism can be tackled
by :
(1) teaching (2) punishing the
students (3) giving the sweets (4)
contacting the parents

2. Discipline means: (1) strict-
behaviour (2) severe punishment
(3) obedience (4) going by the
rules

3. If any girl child does not corne
to school regularly you will
(1) no bother (2) struck off her
name (3) complain to the
Principal (4) meet the parents and
en-
courage them .

4. In co-education you want't to :
(1) make separate rows of boys
and girls (2) you give preference
to boys over girls
(3) you. give preference to none
(4) you deal according to need

5. One of the basic priniclples of
socializing Individuals is :
(1) religion (2)
caste (3) educational (4) imitation

Directions (6-10) :
Which of the' skills do you
consider most essential for a
teacher?

6. (1) Oration skills
(2) Listening skills (3) Managerial
skills, (4) Teaching skills

7. (1) encourage children to
search for knowledge
(2) have all the information for
the children
(3) ability to make children
memorize materials
(4) enable children to do well in
tests

8. (1) identify gifted children (2)
have an understanding of all
children abilities (3) identify
children with learning
disabilities (4) none of the above

9. (1) _ ability to help children un­
derstand texts thoroughly (2)
ability to help children do all the
exercises
(3) ability to raise possible ac­
tions from the texts
(4) ability to help children from
their own opinions on the text

10. (1) to communicate well
{2) to use difficult language
(3) to impress students
(4) to read out the textbook

11. Success in developing values
is mainly dependent upon:
(1) government (2) society  (3)
family (4) teacher

12. Good reading aims at develop­
ing:
(l) understanding (2)
pronunciation (3) sensitivity (4)
increasing factual knowledge

13. The primary duty of a teacher
is to be responsible to his/her:
(1) family (2) students  (3)
society  (4) nation

14. Which of the following is not
related to educational achieve­
ment?
(1) Heredity (2) Experiences (3)
Practice (4) Self learning

15. One of,the students of a class
hardly talks in the class. How
would you encourage him to
express himself?
(1) By orgariising discussions (2)
By encouraging children to take
part in classroom activities
(3) By organizing educational
games/ programmes in which -
children feel like speaking-
(4) By giving good marks to those
who express them'selves well

Answers: 1.4, 2. 4, 3. 4, 4. 4, 5.
3, 5. 4, 7. 1, 8. 2, 9. 4, 10. 1,
11. 3, 12. 1, 13. 2, 14. 1, 15. 3

Set-3 

1. The stage in which a child be­
gins to think logically about
objects and events is known as-
(1) sensory-motor stage (2)
formal operational stage (3) pre-
operational stage (4) concrete
operational stage

2. Four distinct stages of chil­
dren's intellectual development
were identified by-
(1) Kohlberg (2) Erikson (3)
Skinner  (4) Piaget

3. Parents should play
a .............. role in the learning
process of young children.
(1) negative (2) proactive (3)
sympathetic (4) neutral

4. Which is the place where the
child's cognitive development is
defined in the best way?
(1) Playground (2) School and
classroom (3) Auditorium (4)
Home

5. ...is considered a sign of
motivated teaching.
(1) Maximum attendance in class
(2) Remedial work given by the
teacher
(3) Questioning by students
(4) Pin drop silence in the class

6. At lower classes play-way
method of teaching is based on-
(1) theory of physical education
programmes
(2) principles of methods of
teaching
(3) psychological principles of
development and growth
(4) sociological principles of
teaching

7. Dyslexia is associated with
(1) mental disorder (2)
mathematical disorder (3) reading
disorder (4) behavioural disorder

8. Education of children with
special needs should be provided
(1) along with other normal
children (2) by methods
developed for special children ,in
special schools (3) in special
school (4) by special teachers in
special schools

9. In the process of learning,
motivation-
(1) sharpens the memory of
learners (2) differentiates new
learning from old learning (3)
makes learners
think unidirectionally (4) creates
interest for learning among new
learners.

10. A student of grade 5 with
visual deficiency should be-
(1) excused to do a lower level of
work
(2) helped with his/her routine
work by parents and friends
(3) treated normally in the
classroom and provided support
through audio CDs.
(4) given special treatment in the
classroom

Answer key: 1. 3, 2. 4, 3. 3, 4. 2,
5. 2, 6. 3, 7. 3, 8. 1, 9. 4, 10. 3

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Environmental science multiple choice questions/answers (Set-2)

Environmental science multiple choice question /answers:

1. Identify the correct
chronological sequence (oldest to
youngest) in the order of their
formation:
A. Pacific ocean > Atlantic Ocean >
Mediterranean Sea > Indian Ocean
B. Pacific ocean > Atlantic Ocean >
Indian Ocean > Mediterranean Sea
C. Atlantic ocean > Pacific Ocean >
Indian Ocean > Mediterranean Sea
D. Atlantic ocean > Pacific Ocean >
Mediterranean Sea > Indian Ocean
2. Movement of individual rock
masses along structural planes such
as bedding, joints and faults on a
slope is known as:
A. debris slide
B. slump
C. rock slide
D. soil creep
3. Make list I and list II and select
the correct answer using codes
given below the lists:
List I List II
(a) Mid oceanic ridge (i) Alkali rich
basalt
(b) Rift valley (ii) Potash poor
basalt
(c) Island arc (iii) Andesite
(d) Continent (iv) Plateau basalt
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
B. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
4. Consider the following about the
Himalayan orogeny:
(a) The orogeny resulted from the
southward movement
(b) The orogeny began about 25
million years ago
(c) The orogeny closed about 1
million years ago
(d) The Himalayas have a root of
relatively light crustal rocks
projecting into the denser mantle.
Which of the following
combinations is correct?
A (a) and (b)
B. (c) and (d)
C. (a) and (c)
D. (b) and (d)
5. A seismogram records the
following types of earthquake
waves.
(a) L - waves
(b) P - waves
(c) S - waves
The correct chronological sequence
of the arrival of these waves is :
A. (b), (c) and (a)
B. (b), (a) and (c)
C. (c), (a) and (b)
D. (a), (b) and (c) arrive at the
same time
6. Which one of the following
statement is true of braided
streams?
A Width of the channel is less than
its depth
B. Width and depth of the channel
are equal
C. Width of the channel is greater
than its depth
D. Width of the channel is
unrelated to its depth
7. In which of the following
frequency ranges the human ear is
most sensitive to noise:
A. 1 - 2 KHz
B. 100 - 500 Hz
C. 10 - 12 KHz
D. 13 - 16 KHz
9. Assertion (A): Aerosols have
potential for modifying the climate.
Reason (R): Aerosols interact with
both short wave and infra - red
radiations.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
C. (A) is true and (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true
10. Which of the following grows
rapidly resulting in the shrinkage of
water bodies?
A. Phytoplankton
B. Zooplankton
C. Algae
D. Macrophytes
11. Which species of chromium is
toxic in water?
A .Cr+ 2
B. Cr+ 3
C. Cr+6
D. Cr°
12. Chemical compounds having
same crystal structure are called:
A. Polymorphic
B. Pseudomorphic
C. Isomorphic
D. None of the above
13. Micas having an atomic
structure defined as continuous
sheets of tetrahedrons, sharing 3-
oxygen atoms, are called:
A. Inosilicate
B. Phyllosilicate
C. Tectosilicate
D. Sorosilicate
15. If the population growth
follows a logistic curve, the
maximum sustainable yield:
A. is equal to half the carrying
capacity
B. is equal to the carrying capacity
C. depends on growth rate
D. depends on the initial
population
16. Fluidized - bed combustion of
coal is an efficient method of
controlling which of the following
air pollutants:
A. CO
B. SPM and NOx
C. NOx and SOx
D. CO, SPM and SOx
17. The plume rise in a coal based
thermal power plant depends on:
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Atmospheric stability
(c) Momentum of exhaust gases
Identify the correct combination
A. (a) and (b) only
B. (b) and (c) only
C. (a) and (c) only
D. (a), (b) and (c)
18. The efficiency of a solar flat
plate collector depends on:
(a) Thermal efficiency
(b) Optical efficiency
(c) Solar flux
Identify the correct combination
A. (a), (b) and (c)
B. (a) and (b) only
C. (b) and (c) only
D. (a) and (c) only
19. An increase of 10 ppm in the
concentration of CO, in atmosphere
represents approximately an
addition of carbon of amount:
A. 1.2 Kilotons
B. 2.12 Megatons
C. 21.2 Geiga tons
D. 2120 tons
20. Winds blowing down an incline
often due to cold air drainage are
called:
A. Anabatic winds
B. Mountain winds
C. Cyclonic winds
D. Katabatic winds
21. Mixing height is:
A. the height of ground based
inversion
B. the height at which geostrophic
balance occurs
C. the height of constant solar flux
layer
D. the height upto which
atmosphere is churned by
convection
22. For a comprehensive EIA study,
it is to be conducted for:
A. The whole year
B. Any three seasons including
monsoon
C. Three seasons excluding
monsoon
D. The worst season
24. In initial environmental
examination, the following are
considered:
A. No quantitative data
B. Primary data
C. Secondary data
D. On site data for at least a
season
25. Which of the following forest
types is most widespread in India?
A. Tropical evergreen forest
B. Tropical deciduous forest
C. Temperate forest
D. Scrub forest
26. The presence of
pneumatophores is seen in:
A. Desert plants
B. Climbers and lianas
C. Trees of tropical moist forests
D. Mangroves
27. Ramsar convention is related to
conservation of:
A. Tiger
B. Elephants
C. Crop genetic diversity
D. Wetlands
28. A significant effect of climate
change on account of global
warming on terrestrial plants will
be on:
A. Stomatal mechanism
B. Amino acid composition of
cereal grains
C. Phenology
D. Bark formation in trees
29. A tree, which is popular in
social forestry programme in India,
is:
A. Shorea robusta
B. Ailanthus excelsa
C. Cedrus deodara
D. Callistemon lanceolatus
30. The great Indian Rhino has its
natural home in:
A. Kaziranga National Park
B. Corbett National Park
C. Sunderbans
D. Kanha National Park
31. According to the Botanical
Survey of India, the total number
of plant species in India is about:
A. 45,000
B. 75,000
C. 17,000
D. 30,000
32. Assertion (A): Bt cotton is a
transgenic crop which has been
introduced iri India, but is being
opposed on environmental
grounds. Reason (R): CrylAc protein
in Bt cotton has been found to be
toxic and allergenic to human
beings.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true
33. Oxygen toxicity (in humans) is
caused by:
A. Inhalation of molecular oxygen
B. Generation of free radicals
C. Interactions of singlet oxygen
with membrane
D. None of the above
34. C 2F 3 C1 3 gas:
A. absorbs ultraviolet radiations
B. affects troposphere ozone
C. forms aerosols in stratosphere
D. absorbs infrared radiations
35. Which of the following shows
bioaccumulation and contaminate
food chains?
A. Pesticides
B. Polychlorinated biphenyls
C. PAN
D. All of the above
36. Removal of which of the
following impurities from
contaminated water requires the of
coagulants:
A. Colloidal impurities
B. dissolved solids
C. micro organisms
D. all of the above
38. The most efficient method of
biodegradable urban solid waste
management is:
A. Landfills
B. Pelletisation
C. Gasification
D. Composting
39. Pollutants in soil can be broken
down by micro organisms. The
process is called:
A. Probiotics
B. Bioremediation
C. Bioaugmentation
D. None of the above
40. A thermodynamic function of
state which is constant during a
reversible isobaric isothermal
process is:
A. Geothermal potential
B. Thermodynamic efficiency
C. Enthalpy
D. Gibb's free energy
41. t - statistic is useful for testing:
A. Variances
B. Overall goodness of fit of a
regression model
C. null hypothesis for a regression
coefficient
D. constancy of the mean
43. 1 metric ton of average coal in
energy terms is equivalent to:
A. 2000 cubic feet of natural gas
B. 24000 cubic feet of natural gas
C. 1.5 barrels of oil
D. 2.0 barrels of oil
45. In marine environment
Carbonate Compensation Depth
(CCD) is defined as depth at which:
A. Carbonate begins to dissolve
B. Carbonate begins to precipitate
C. Carbonate begins to precipitate
D. Bicarbonate begins to dissolve
46. In an idealised Magneto
hydrodynamic power plant, the
maximum power output varies with
fuel velocity (u) as:
A. U
B. U 2
C. U 3
D. U 1/2
48. In humid climate, weathering
of various types "of rocks occurs.
Identify the correct sequence
in order of decreasing weathering:
A. Basalt > Dunite > Granite
B. Basalt > Granite > Dunite
C. Dunite > Granite > Basalt
D. Dunite > Basalt > Granite
49. Match list I and list II and
select the correct answer using
codes given below the lists
List I List II
(a) Ozone depletion (i) Basel
convention
(b) CO-, reduction (ii) Kyoto
Protocol
(c) Sustainable development (iii) Rio
Summit lopment
(d) Hazardous waste (iv) Montreal
Protocol Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
B. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
C. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
50. The lion - tailed macaque is
endemic to:
A. Andaman and Nicobar islands
B. Lakshadweep
C. Nilgiri
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Answers
1   2   3   4   5   6   7   9  10
A  C   B   D  A   C  B   B   A
11 12 13 15 16 17 18 19 20
B    C    D  A   D   D   D  B  B
21 22 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C    A   B   B   C   D   A   A   A
31 32 33 34 35 36 38 39 40
A    A   B   B   D  B  D  B   D
41 43 45 46 48 49 50
B    D   A  C   A   B  A

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Environmental science multiple choice questions/answers (Set-1)

Environmental science study materials:
1. Which of the following
statement about Fjord is incorrect?
A. Most Fjords were formed due to
raise in sea level after the melting
of Pleistocene ice
B. It is an emergent coast that was
originally submerged
C. It is a long narrow inlet of the
sea bound by steep slopes
D. It is a glaciated valley that has
been inundated by the sea

3. Residence time of water
molecule in the ocean is:
A. 3.5 years
B. 3.5 million years
C. 35 years
D. 35000 years

4. Hyperplasia means:
A. excessive motility of a muscle
B. Voracious eating
C. Abnormal increase in number of
cells
D. An increase in size of a cell

5. Carbon dioxide absorbs radiation
in the range:
A. 5.5 and 7 microns
B. Greater than 27 microns
C. 8 to 13 microns
D. 0.1 to 30 microns

6. Sodium is usually estimated by
which of the following analytical
technique:
A. Flame Photometry
B. Coulometry
C. High pressure liquid
chromotography
D. Visible spectrophotometry

7. Which combination of the
following elements constitutes a
major portion of earth crust:
A. Oxygen and Silicon
B. Oxygen and Iron
C. Silicon and Iron
D. Aluminium and Iron

8. Assertion (A):
Chlorofluorocarbons deplete ozone.
Reason (R): These compounds
contain Chlorine, Bromine and
Fluorine.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

10. Maximum Density of water is
at:
A. 4°C
B. 0°C
C. 100°C
D. 272°C

11. The cause of lung cancer
Mesothalemia is:
A. Asbestos
B. Arsenic
C. Mercury
D. Chromium

12. Which of the following pattern
of evolution accounts for all the
diversity present on earth today?
A .Microevolution
B. Megaevolution
C. Biodiversity
D. Speciation

13. Group of individuals of the
same species that share common
attributes are called:
A. Community
B. Population
C. Ecotype
D. Society

14. Which one of the following is
the correct food chain?
A. Algae -> Daphnia -> Dragon Fly
Nymph -» Newt -» Grass Snake
B. Daphnia -» Dragon Fly Nymph ->
Newt -» Algae -> Grass Snake
C. Grass Snake -> Newt -» Dragon
Fly Nymph Daphnia Algae
D. Newt -» Grass Snake -» Dragon
Fly Nymph -» Algae -> Daphnia

16 . Assertion (A): Monsoonal
rainfall is very high both on the
west coast and northeast India.
Reason (R): The duration of
monsoon over west coast and
northeast India is longer than
other parts of India.
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

19. Which one of the following
statements regarding El-NINO is
NOT true?
A. It is an extension of equatorial
current towards the western coast
of South America.
B. It is an occasional warm current
leading to an increase of about
10°C in subsurface water
temperature.
C. It develops as temporary
replacement of usual cold Peruvian
Current.
D. It causes an increase in plankton
thriving in cold Peruvian current.

20. The process of alluviation
indicates:
A .Removal of particles from the
upper layer of soil
B. Removal of particles from lower
layer of soil
C. Deposition of soil particles in
sub-soil layer
D. Transportation of soil particles
in the B-horizon

21. Which one of the following is
the cleanest source of energy?
A. Hydropower
B. Fossil fuel
C. Nuclear power
D. Wind energy

22. Match the items in List - I with
List - II and select the correct
answer using codes given below:
List I List - II
(a) CFC (i) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
(b) C0 2 (ii) Global Warming
(c) BOD (iii) Ozone depletion
(d) MIC (iv) Water pollution Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

23. The global warming efficiency
of a CFC molecule in relation to a
CO-, molecule is higher by a factor
of:
A. 125
B. 25
C. 20,000
D. 1500

24. Arsenic problem in India is
primarily due to:
A. Overexploitation of arsenopyrite
in the hinterland
B. Overexploitation of coal in Bihar
and Bengal
C. Overexploitation of ground
water in the affected areas
D. Overexploitation of surface
water in the affected areas

25. Acid rain is caused by:
A. CO and CO2 ,
B. SO 2 ,and 0 2
C. S0 2 and NO" 2
D. NO 2 and O 2

26. What will be the outcome of
Eutrophication of surface waters?
A. Overproduction of biomass
B. Decrease in nitrogen
concentration
C. Decrease in phosphorus
concentration
D. Decrease in both nitrogen and
phosphorus concentrations.

27. Assertion (A): Negatively
charged soil particles attract
positive ions like Ca++ and Mg ++
Reason (R): The attraction keeps the
ions at soil level for ready
availability.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

29. Cost Benefit analysis is
required in case of proposals
involving clearance of forest land:
A. Greater than 1Oha but less than
20ha
B. Greater than 20ha
C. Greater than 5ha but less than
1Oha
D. Greater than 40ha only

30. Ecologically sensitive and
important areas, breeding and
spawning grounds of marine life
etc., are categorized in coastal
Regulation Zone as:
A. CRZ - IV
B. CRZ - II
C. CRZ - III
D. CRZ - I

31. A management tool comprising
a systematic, periodic and objective
evaluation of how well an
environmental organization,
management and equipment are
performing is known as:
A. Raw material balance
B. Input - output analysis
C. Acturities at site
D. Environmental audit

33. Match the items in List - I with
List - II and select the correct
answer using codes given below:
List - I List - II
• (a) Montreal Conven- (i) Ozone
depletion tion
(b) Rio - Summit (ii) Greenhouse
gas
(c) Ramsah Conven- (iii) Convention
on tion Biological diversity
(d) Kyoto Protocol (iv) Wetlands
convention
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

34. The least preferred technique
in the disposal of municipal solid
waste is:
A. incineration
B. composting
C. land filling
D. bricketting

35. Bacterial decomposition of
biological material under aerobic
condition is:
A. Fermentation
B. Fertilization
C. Contamination
D. Composting

36. When you go for shopping,
what are you expected to do to
save environment?
A. Shop for products that have as
little packaging as possible.
B. In any store, use a bag even it is
not needed.
C. Do not reduce the frequency of
shopping.
D. Buy paper towels and napkins.

38. In the analysis of 15 water
samples, Ca and Mg gave a
correlation of +0.95. It means:
A. Ca came from soil and Mg came
from biota
B. Ca and Mg both came from the
same type of water
C. Ca and Mg are both cogenetic
D. Ca and Mg came from different
sources.

39. If a piece of metal weighs
10.2g in air, 8.6g in water and
7.8g in another liquid, then what
will be the specific gravity of the
liquid?
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 3.0

40. The geometric mean of the
numbers 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 is:
A. 12
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32

41. The correlation coefficient
between the variables X, Y as given
in the following table:
X 1 3 4 6 8 9 11 14
Y 1 2 4 4 5 7 8 9 is:
A. -0.977
B. -0.517
C. +0.977
D. +0.217

42. Climatic stress is caused by
insufficient and/or excessive
regime of:
A. Temperature
B. Humidity
C. Solar radiation
D. All the above

43. The chemical that is used to
ripen mangoes is:
A .Calcium sulphide
B. Calcium carbide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Calcium chloride
44. Which two of the following
statements regarding ISO 14000
series of standards are true?
Answer choosing the code given
below:
(i) ISO 14000 standards are based
on a principle assumption that
better environmental management
will lead to better environmental
performance.
(ii) ISO M°C/u standards are
regulatory standards developed by
ISO
(iii) ISO 14000 standards are
market driven and therefore are
based on voluntary involvement of
all interests in the market place.
(iv) The adoption of ISO 14000 is a
one time commitment
A (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)

45. Organisms that generate energy
using light are:
A. oligotrophs
B. chaemorganotrophs
C. chaemolithotrophs
D. photoautotrophs

47. Land use pattern is usually
studied by the following technique:
A. Aerial photography
B. Satellite imaging
C. Satellite imaging and G. I. S.
D. Satellite imaging, G. I. S. and G.
P. S.

48. To conserve coral reefs the
Govt, of India declared one of the
following as Marine Park:
A. Gulf of Kutch
B. Lakshadweep islands
C. Gulf of Mannar
D. Andaman Islands

49. Which one of the following
does not contribute to
conservation of water?
A Waste water treatment
B. Waste land development
C. Water shed protection
D. Rain water harvesting

50. Particle size in soil can be
classified as clay: 1-4 micron. Silt:
4-62 micron. Sand: 62-1000
micron; Boulder: >1000 micron. It
is hence correct to suggest that in
nature particle size distribution
follows:
A. Binomial distribution
B. Lognormal distribution
C. Linear distribution
D. Normal distribution
Answers
1   3  4   5   6   7   8   10
D  C  C  A   A   A   C   A
11 12 13 14 16 19 20
B    C    C   A  B   A  C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 29 30
D    A   A   C   C   A   A   A   D
31 33 34 35 36 38 39 40
D    C   D   A   A   D   C  C
41 42 43 44 45 47 48 49 50
C    D    B  A   D   B   B   B  D

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Practice paper current affairs questions /answers

1. Nepal President Ram Baran
Yadav on 29 May 2012 removed
…………………………from his post,
(a) Khil Raj Regmi
(b) Parmanand Jha
(c) Baburam Bhattarai
(d) Purna Kumari Subedi
Answer:  (c)
2. In what location did a powerful
5.8 magnitude earthquake hit,
killing at least 16 people and
injuring 350 on 30 May 2012
(a) Northeastern Italy
(b) Pakistan
(c) Bali
(d) Sikkim
Answer:  (a)
3. A Boeing MD83 aircraft crashed
on 3 June 2012. All 153 people on
board were killed in the worst air
disaster of the country in nearly
past two decades. Identify the
place.
(a) Lagos, the largest Nigerian city
Antonis Samara
(b) Naha Airport, Japan
(c) Verona, Italy,
(d) Cricklewood Aerodrome, North
London
Answer: (a)
4. The United Nations Human
Rights Council on 1 June 2012
approved an investigation into the
mass killing of civilians at ………..
and condemned Syria for the
massacre. (identify the place out of
the names)
a. Gilani
b. Houla
c. Haqqani
d. Chidambaram
Answer: (c)
5. Which two countries on 31 May
2012 inked a Tax Information
Exchange Agreement to promote
economic cooperation and joint
investment between the two
countries.
(a) India and Bahrain
(b) India and Singapore
(c) India and China
(d) India and South Korea
Answer:  (a)
6. Which the following two
countries have had talks in Siachen
that were held at the Ministry of
Defence, Rawalpindi on 11 – 12
June 2012.
(a) India and Pakistan
(b)   Afghanistan and India
(c) India and United States of
America
(d) India and Israel
Answer:  (a)
7. _______________ US defence
secretary arrived India on a two-
day visit in June, 2012 ?
(a) Barak Obama
(b)    Antonis Samara
(c) Mohommed Moorsi
(d)    Leon Panetta
Answer: (d) Leon Panetta
8. Who was held responsible by the
Pakistan judicial commission for
not being fair to his country while
serving as an envoy to the United
States of America and also Held
him responsible for memo seeking
help to stave off a feared coup in
that country.
a. Yusuf Raja Gilani
b. Antonis Samara
c. Husain Haqqani
d. P. Chidambaram
Answer: (c)
9. Identify the false date of the
World Anti-child Labour Day which
is observed across the globe to
highlight the need to protect the
rights of the child.
(a) 6 January
(b) 15 August
(c) 25 November
(d) 12 June
Answer. (d)
10. Which of the following two
countries have decided to make
serious efforts for amicable
solution to Siachen issue.
(a) India and Pakistan
(b) India and Russia
(c) India and South Korea
(d) India and Afghanistan
Answer: (a)

11. A US drone strike in northwest
Pakistan killed al-Qaida's second-
in-command -------------?
(a) Ayman al-Zawahiri
(b)   Abu Yahya al-Libi
(c) Hasan Qayid
(d) Osama Bin Laden
Answer:  (b)
12. A Boeing MD83 aircraft crashed
on 3 June 2012. All 153 people on
board were killed in the worst air
disaster of the country in nearly
past two decades. Identify the
place.
(a) Lagos, the largest Nigerian
city Antonis Samara
(b)    Naha Airport, Japan
(c) Verona, Italy,
(d) Cricklewood Aerodrome,
North London
Answer: (a)
13. A country’s pro-democracy
leader -------------carried out her
first trip outside the country since
1988.
a. Yusuf Raja Gilani
b. Aung Saan Suu Kyi
c. Husain Haqqani
d. P. Chidambaram
Answer: (c)
14. Which missile did Pakistan
successfully test-fire on 5 June
2012?
(a) Hatf-VII (Babur) cruise missile
(b)   Agni –VI (air drone)
(c) Alacrán missile
(d) Velvet Glove
Answer:  (a)

15. Name the Indian Army Officer
whose ban was ban was lifted by
Indian Army Chief General Bikram
Singh?
a. Lt. General Dalbir Singh Suhag
b.    Lt. General PS Thorrat
c. Lt. General Ranjeet Singh
d.    Lt. General BK Singh
Answer: (a)
16. According to which international
organisation’s report, India is listed
among the top five countries
across the world where a large
number of children dies due to
diseases like pneumonia and
diarrhoea ?
a. UNICEF
b.    WHO
c. World Bank
d.    NHRC
Answer: (a)
17. Name the Indian cricketer who
was sworn in as the member of
Rajya Sabha, the upper house of
the Indian Parliament on 4 June
2012 ?
a. MS Dhoni
b.    Sachin Tendulkar
c. Sunil Gavaskar
d.    Saurabh Ganguly
Answer: (b)

18. Who Indian player won
Thailand Open Grand Prix Gold title
in Bangkok 2012?
a.Madhumita Bisht
b. Saniya nehwal
c. Jwala Gupta
d. Aparna Popat
Answer. (b)
19. which one of the following is
correct:
Rafael Nadal defeated _______ to
win his seventh French Open
Singles Title.
a. Mats Wilander
b. Roy Emerson
c. Serbian Novak Djokovic
d. Roland Garros
Answer. (c)
20. Which one of the following
won French Open 2012?
a. Maria Sharapova
b. Petra Kvitova
c. Venus Williams
d. Sara Errani
Answer. (a)
21. Which one of the following is
correct?
Maria Sharapova defeated _______
to win French Open 2012
a. Kim Clijsters
b. Agnieszka Radwanska
c. Venus Williams
d. Sara Errani
Answer. (d)
22. Consider the following:
Who won the in Asian junior
wrestling championship 2012?
a. Indu Chaudhary
b. Sakshi Malik
c. Both A and B
d. None of the Above
Answer. (c)

23. Name the two players on whom
AITA (All India Tennis Association)
extended ban till June 2014
(a) Mahesh Bhupati and Rohan
Bopanna
(b) Sania Mirza and Rohan Bopanna
(c) Leander Paes and Sania Mirza
(d) Leander Paes and Mahesh
Bhupati
Answer: (a) Mahesh Bhupati and
Rohan Bopanna
24. Name the owner of Delhi
franchise of hockey India
(a) Tata Group
(b) Wave Group
(c) Bharti Group
(d) Aircel and Reliance
Answer: (b) Wave Group
25. Name the person who has been
appointed as full time president of
Hockey India.
(a) Gayatri Shetty
(b) Mariamma koshy
(c) Bachendri Pal
(d) Dilip Tirki
Answer: (b) Mariamma koshy
26. Name the the Australian
Cricketer who on 20 September
2012 announced his retirement
from all formats of Cricket.
(a) Matthew Hayden
(b) Ricky Pointing
(c) Michael Clarke
(d) Bret Lee
Answer: (a) Matthew Hayden
27. Name the BJP MLA who was
elected as the President of Indian
Boxing Federation on 23 September
2012.
(a) Abhishek Matoria
(b) Ashok Gehlot
(c) Mahesh Joshi
(d) Sachin Pilot
Answer: (a) Abhishek Matoria

28. The Indian Railway Catering and
Tourism Corporation Limited
introduced a system for making the
payment of the bookings via
mobile phones. What is the name
of that system?
(a) Interbank Mobile Payment
System (IMPS)
(b) Sybase mobile banking System
(c) Railway mobile banking system
(d) PNB mobile banking System
Answer: (a) Interbank Mobile
Payment System (IMPS)
29. Name the Union Minister who
had suggested setting up of a
National Investment Board (NIB)
under Prime Minister Manmohan
Singh to accord speedy clearances
to mega proposals.
(a) Sharad Pawar
(b) A.K. Antony
(c) Kapil Sibal
(d) P. Chidambaram
Answer (d) P. Chidambaram
30. Reserve Bank of India injected a
liquidity of around ___________by
slashing down the Cash Reserve
Ratio (CRR) by 25 basis points to
4.50 percent from 4.75 percent.
(a) 17000 crore
(b) 15000 crore
(c) 10000 crore
(d) 12000 crore
Answer: (a) 17000 crore
31. Shimla Municipal Corporation
introduced a Tax on Shimla entry
of vehicles that are not registered
in Himachal Pradesh. What was the
name of that tax?
(a) Envy Tax
(b) Green Tax
(c) Carbon tax
(d) Natural resource consumption
tax
Answer: (b) Green tax
32. Name the report which was
submitted to the finance minister
of India by the Shome Committee
constituted by the Central Board of
Direct Taxes, after the approval of
Prime Minister of India.
(a) GARR Report
(b) CAG Report
(c) Financial Credit Report
(d) Tax Mitigation Report
Answer: (a) GARR Report

33. For what percent, The
Government of India on 20
September 2012 hiked the foreign
investment cap for the
broadcasting service providers?
(a) 65 percent
(b) 74 percent
(c) 80 percent
(d) 54 percent
Answer: (b) 74 percent
34. The Cabinet Committee on
Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 24
September 2012 approved a
package on debt restructuring for
the state-electricity boards. What
was net worth of that package?
(a) 1.90 lakh Crore
(b) 3.5 lakh Crore
(c) 2.6 lakh Crore
(d) 1.25 lakh Crore
Answer: (a) 1.90 lakh crore
35. Which agency was instructed by
the Central Vigilance Commission
on 24 September 2012 to expand
its investigation scope on Coal
Block Allocation to private firms in
between 1993 to 2004?
(a) Directorate of Revenue
Intelligence
(b) Central Bureau of Investigation
(CBI)
(c) CAG Committee
(d) None of These
Answer: (b) Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI)
36. Market regulator Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has
approved a proposed hike of the
government's stake in Industrial
Finance Corporation of India Ltd
(IFCI) to make it a state-run
company. What was hike that
Percent?
(a) 56.25 Percent
(b) 55.57 Percent
(c) 54.35 Percent
(d) 58.65 Percent
Answer: (b) 55.5 Percent
37. State Bank of India, the
country’s largest bank, cuts its
base rate with how much point
making it to 9.75 percent?
(a) 25 basis point
(b) 45 basis point
(c) 35 basis point
(d) 50 basis point
Answer: (a) 15 basis point

Latest National current affairs for West Bengal TET 2012 for Primary Teachers!

# Karnataka to Provide Tamil Nadu
with 12 TMC feet of Cauvery
water: CMC

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Cauvery Monitoring
Committee (CMC) on 7 December
2012 asked Karnataka to provide
Tamil Nadu with 12 TMC feet of
Cauvery water during December
2012

# Top Congress Leader and Former Deputy Chief Minister Narhari Amin Joined BJP:

International/World Current Affairs
2012. Senior party leader and
former Deputy Chief Minister of
Indian National Congress in Gujrat
Narhari Amin on 6 December 2012
switched sides and joined the BJP
with his supporters...

# Union Government of India
cleared Decks for Ambedkar
Memorial:

India Current Affairs 2012. Union
Government of India on 5
December 2012 cleared the decks
for transferring the prime India
12.5 acre United Mill land in
Mumbai to the Maharashtra
government for building a state-of-
the-art memorial to B.R.
Ambedkar...

# Global Terrorism Index Revealed:
India Ranked Among Top Five
Terror-Hit Nations:

India Current Affairs December
2012. New index called Global
Terrorism Index (GTI) prepared by
Australian think tank revealed on 4
December 2012 that India,
Afghanistan and Pakistan were the
most terrorism-hit nations in 2011

# S.A. Ibrahim's Appointment as
Director for Intelligence Bureau
Approved:

India Current Affairs December
2012. The Competent Authority on
3 December 2012 approved
appointment of S. A. Ibrahim the
IPS (MP-77) as officer on Special
Duty in the Intelligence Bureau and
also as the Director for Intelligence
Bureau for a next two years from
the date he acquires his charge or
till the next order that is is further
sent

# Mismatch of signatures on the
cheque would amount to
criminal proceedings: SC

India Current Affairs December
2012. Supreme Court set aside the
verdict of Gujarat High Court in
which it said that the criminal
proceedings for dishonouring
cheque would start off only in case
the cheque is dishonoured because
of insufficient amount in the
account

# Supreme Court Issued Guidelines to Curb Eve Teasing At the Public Places:

India Current Affairs December
2012. Supreme Court on 30
November 2012 issued certain
guidelines in order to put a halt to
eve-teasing

# EPFO (Employees Provident Fund
Organisation) launched its e-
Passbook Portal:

India Current Affairs December
2012. Employees Provident Fund
Organization (EPFO) on 30
November 2012 launched its e-
Passbook portal for its members to
access their accounts online

# Union Government issued New
IT Guidelines to stop its Misuse:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Union government of
India issued new guidelines to stop
misuse of a particular section of
the Information Technology Act

# 220 FEMA Notices Were Issued
By ED in Past Three Years:

India Current Affairs November
2012. Enforcement Directorate
issued 220 notices under Foreign
Exchange Management Act in past
three years

# Union Government approved an
Anti-Piracy Scheme in Audio-
Visual Sector:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Union Government of
India on 27 November 2012
approved a scheme under the 12th
Five Year Plan for carrying out an
anti-piracy initiative in the audio-
visual sector

# Costal Chain of Static Sensors
Positioned along the Coast of
Andhra Pradesh:

India Current Affairs November
2012. A coastal chain of static
sensors positioned along the coast
of Andhra Pradesh was inaugurated
by Ministry of Defence in a
ceremony held at Coast Guard
District Headquarters in
Visakhapatnam

# Union Cabinet of India approved
the National Pharmaceutical
Pricing Policy:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Union Cabinet of India
on 22 November 2012 passed the
National Pharmaceutical Pricing
Policy (NPPA)

# Union Minister of Finance P
Chidambaram Finalised GAAR
Amendment:

India Current Affairs 2012. Union
Finance Minister P. Chidambaram
on 18 November 2012 disclosed
that the Amendments to GAAR, the
controversial law against tax
avoidance through foreign
investments, had been finalised...
The Coal Ministry issued Order
for Deduction of Bank

# Guarantees and de-allocation of
Coal Blocks:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Coal Ministry of India on
17 November 2012 issued orders
for deduction of bank guarantees
of the D B Power and decided on
de-allocation of some coal blocks
following a decision made by an
Inter Ministerial Group

# Rahul Gandhi Appointed Head of
INC Coordination Panel for 2014
Lok Sabha Elections:

India Current Affairs 2012. Rahul
Gandhi, the General Secretary of
Indian National Congress on 15
November 2012 was made the
head of the Congress Coordination
Committee for 2014 Lok Sabha
polls....

# Controversy over Clean Chit
Given to Rajasthan Atomic Power
Plant by IAEA:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The International Atomic
Energy Agency (IAEA) gave clean
chit to Rajasthan Atomic Power
Plant (RAPP) in Rawatbhata

# The Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 came
into Force:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Protection of Children
from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
came into force on 14 November
2012

# President Pranab Mukherjee
Launched Low Cost Aakash
Tablet 2:

India Current Affairs 2012. The
Indian President Pranab Mukherjee
on 11 November 2012 in New
Delhi launched the new tablet
Aakash -2 which is an improved
version of India's super- cheap
tablet...

# Union Cabinet Cleared Setting up of 21 Textile Parks:

India Current Affairs 2012. The
Union Government on 8 November
2012 approved the release of funds
for the establishment of 21
integrated textile parks which was
sanctioned in the 11th Five Year
Plan...

# TRAI issued a CAP of 100 SMSs
on Concession Rates:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Telecom Regulatory
Authority of India (TRAI) on 5
November 2012 issued a cap of
100 SMSs per day at concession
rate

# SC:Criminal Case can’t be
dismissed because of Delay:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Supreme Court of India
on 2nd November 2012 ruled that
a criminal case cannot be
dismissed merely because of delay
in lodging a complaint if the delay
has been reasonably explained

# Government Nod to Grant Ex-
Serviceman Status to the Retired
Paramilitary Staffs:

India Current Affairs November
2012. The Union Cabinet of India
on 1 November 2012 gave its nod
to grant retired personnel of
central police and paramilitary
forces the status of ex-Servicemen

# Union Government Body CCEA
lifted Export Ban on Some Milk
Products:

India Current Affairs 2012. The
Union Government body, Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs
(CCEA) on 1 November 2012 lifted
the export ban on milk products,
especially on whole milk powder
(WMP), dairy whitener, infant milk
foods and other milk products till
March 2013...

# Cabinet Reshuffle in India:
Salman Khurshid got External
Affairs Ministry:

India Current Affairs October
2012. The Cabinet Reshuffle that
took place on 28 October 2012
witnessed reshuffling of 5 ministers along with 17 new faces, which were inducted to take on the charge.

# Broadband Network Pact Signed
with 16 States and UT Government:

India Current Affairs 2012.- The
central government on 26 October
2012 signed a tripartite pact with
16 state and UT governments for
laying digital highway and also
formed a special purpose vehicle
BBNL for facilitating connection to
every gram Panchayat with
broadband network

# Union Government Constituted a National Committee on Direct
Cash Transfers:

India Current Affairs October
2012. The Union Government on
25 October 2012 constituted a
National Committee on Direct CashTransfers

# IGMRI and CWC Signed MoU for
Post Harvest Management of
Foodgrains:

India Current Affairs 2012. -
Department of Food & Public
Distribution under Ministry of
Consumer Affairs, and Central
Warehousing Corporation (CWC) on
25 October 2012 signed a
Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) for creating a Centre of
Excellence focusing on capacity
building in the areas of post
harvest management of food grain
by providing training on latest
developments to the aspirants
internationally

# Prime Minister Launched Aadhar
Based Transfer System:

India Current Affairs 2012. Prime
Minister Manmohan Singh on 20
October 2012 launched Aadhaar
Enabled Service Delivery in Dudu
district of Rajasthan to mark the
2nd anniversary of Aadhaar.

# SC Ordered States to have a
Check on Sexual Exploitation of
Women at Workplaces:

India Current Affairs October
2012. The Supreme Court of India
on 19 October 2012 made it
mandatory for every state, union
territory and regulatory bodies to
bring in practice/operations the
legal mechanism for
implementation of the guidelines
issued in Vishaka Case that requires
the employers to observe and
ensure prevention of sexual
harassment of women at
workplaces

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) requires 162 personnel

BHARAT SANCHAR NIGAM LTD.
(BSNL) REQUIRES 162 DEPUTY
GENERAL MANAGERS (DGM) IN
TELECOM OPERATIONS AND
TELECOM FINANCE. APPLY ONLINE
WITHIN 07-12-2012.
1. DGMs in Telecom Operations:
106 Nos. (Gen—48; SC—13; ST—
7; OBC—38; PH—4)
Qualification : Ist Class (60%
marks or more) BE/B.Tech or
equivalent Engineering Degree
from recognized institution only
in Electrical/ Electronics and
Communications/IT/Computer/
Computer Sciences
2. DGMs in Telecom Finance: 56
Nos. (Gen—27; SC—9; ST—4; OBC
—16; PH—2)
Qualification : CA/ICWA/CS
Eligibility Criteria/ Work
Experience: Candidates from
Public Sector, Private Sector and
Government are eligible to apply.
Refer the Advt. for details.(Link
given below)
Pay scale: Rs.32900—58000 plus
other allowances and perks.
Age Limits: maximum 45yrs as
on 01-08-2012. Upper age
relaxation is as per Govt. norms
Shortlist will be prepared on basis
of Qualification and experience of
the candidates. The screened
candidates will sit for Written Test
which will be through Online
Mode on All India basis. The
Written Test to be held on
20-01-2013 .
Online written examination will be
held in five cities i.e., Chennai,
Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and
Guwahati .
Qualified candidates will be later
called for personal interview.
Exact date and venue will be
intimated in due course to the
eligible candidates.
How to Apply: Apply Online from
the official website of BSNL —
www.externalexam.bsnl.co.in
Application fee: Fee can be paid
in form of Bank Demand Draft/
Pay Oder of Rs. 1500/ - for OC &
OBC and Rs. 750/- for SC/ST/PH
candidates drawn in favour of —
AO(Cash), BSNL, New Delhi
After successful submission of
Online application form;
candidates should print-out the
system generated form and then
along with enclosures should send
it by Registered/ Speed Posts at
the following address — “Shri
Shiv Singh, AGM(DE-II), Room
No. 223, Eastern Court,
Janpath, New Delhi-110001.”.
For list of enclosures, refer the
below given link.
Last Date of Online Application:
07th December 2012.
For detailed Advt. and Application
form, please visit the following
link — http://119.226.214.34/
BSNL/Form/

56 Group -C and Group -D posts in Siliguri Municipal Corporation (SMC) Last date - 22/12/2012

56 Group-C and Group-
D posts in Siliguri
Municipal Corporation
(SMC). Last Dt.
22/12/2012

Siliguri Municipal Corporation
(SMC) is recruiting 56 persons for
the different posts through direct
recruitment. Posts—Mazdoor,
Guard, Mate, Caretaker,
Electrician, Driver, Supervisor,
Steno, Typist, Lower Division
Clerk, Cashier, Market
Inspector, Asst. Tax Collector
and various other posts in
Group-D and Group-C. Interested
candidates may apply on
prescribed application format.
Qualification norms and
information in brief is given
below—

SILIGURI MUNICIPAL
CORPORATION REQUIRES 56
MAZDOOR, GUARD, MATE,
CARETAKER, ELECTRICIAN, DRIVER,
SUPERVISOR, STENO, TYPIST,
LOWER DIVISION CLERK, CASHIER,
MARKET INSPECTOR, ASST. TAX
COLLECTOR AND ETC. LAST DATE:
22-12-2012.

1. Mazdoor: 9 Nos. [UR - 03, SC –
01, ST- 01, OBC (Category-A) –
01, OBC (Category-B)- 01, UR(Ex-
service man Gr. D post)-01, SC
(Ex-serviceman D post) -01]
Qualification : Class VIII pass.
Preference will be given to the
candidates with good physique
and sportsman ship.
Age: between 18yrs to 40yrs.

2. Guard: 6 Nos. [UR - 01, SC –
02 OBC (Category-B)- 01, UR(Ex-
service man Gr. D post)-01, SC
(Ex-serviceman D post) -01].
Qualification : Class VIII pass.
Preference will be given to the
candidates with good physique
and shall be able to read, write
and speak Bengali and Nepali.
Age: 18yrs – 40yrs.

3. Mate: 1 Nos. (UR- Person with
disability)
Qualification : Class VIII pass
Age: 18yrs—40yrs.

4. Care-Taker: 1 Nos. (UR)
Qualification : Class-VIII pass.
Preference will be given to the
Madhyamik done candidates and
able to English.
Age: 18yrs—40yrs.

5. Electric Mistri: 1 Nos. (UR)
Qualification : Class VIII pass and
must have certificate in electrical
maintenance.
Age: 18yrs—40yrs.

6. Driver: 8 Nos. [UR - 03, SC –
01, ST- 01, OBC (Category-A) –
01, OBC (Category-B)- 01, UR(Ex-
service man Gr. C post) - 01
Qualification : Class VIII pass and
must have Heavy Vehicle Driving
Licence and atleast 5yrs of
experience in driving heavy
vehicle.
Age: 18yrs—40yrs

7. Work Supervisor: 6 Nos. [UR -
01, ST- 01, OBC (Category-A) –
01, OBC (Category-B)- 01, SC (Ex-
service man Gr. C post) - 01, UR
(Persons with disability)-01]
Qualification : Madhyamik pass
and shall have experience in road
& drain measurement
Age: 18yrs—40yrs.

8. Sub-Overseer: 1 Nos. (UR)
Qualification : Madhyamik pass
and must have done ITI course in
Civil Work.
Age: 18yrs—40yrs.

9. Steno-Typist: 1 Nos. (UR)
Qualification : Madhyamik pass
with Stenography speed 80 words
per minute . English typing at 30
words per minute  and 20 words
per minute  in Bengali AND
knowledge in Computer work.
Age: 18yrs—40yrs.

10. Collecting Sarkar: 8 Nos. [UR
- 03, SC – 01, ST- 01, OBC
(Category-A) – 01, OBC (Category-
B)- 01, UR(Ex-service man Gr. C
post) -01]
Qualification : Madhyamik pass
or equivalent with at least 2nd
division marks.
Age: 18yrs—40yrs.

11. Typist: 2 Nos. (UR—1; SC—1)
Qualification : Madhyamik pass
and must have ability to type 30
words per minute  in English and
20 words per minute in Bengali
AND must have knowledge in
Computer work.
Age: 18yrs—40yrs.

12. Lower Division Clerk: 3 Nos.
[UR - 01, ST- 01, UR (Ex-service
man Gr. C post) -01]
Qualification : Madhyamik pass
with English typing speed 30
words per minute  and knowledge
of Computer work.
Age: 18yrs – 40yrs.

13. Clerk-cum-Typists: 2 Nos.
(UR—1; ST—1)
Qualification : Madhyamik pass
with English typing speed 30
words per minute  and Bengali
typing speed 20wpm and
knowledge of Computer work.
Age: 18yrs—40yrs.

14. Assistant Cashier: 1 Nos.
(UR)
Qualification : Madhyamik pass
or equivalent with at least 2nd
Division marks. Candidates must
have experience in Accounting
and in computer work.
Age: 18yrs—40yrs.

15. Asst. Assessment
Inspector: 1 Nos. (UR)
Qualification : Diploma in
Surveyor ship
Age: 25yrs—40yrs.

16. Market Inspector: 2 Nos.
(UR—1; SC—1)
Qualification : Graduate and must
have experience in Accounting
and Computer work.
Age: 21yrs—40yrs.

17. Vehicles Superintendent: 1
Nos. (UR)
Qualification : Diploma in
Automobile Engineer
Age: 21yrs—40yrs.

18. Asst. Tax-Collector: 1 Nos.
(ST)
Qualification : B.Com Graduate
and must have experience in
Accounting and Computer work.
Age: 21ysr—40yrs.

19. Assessment Inspector: 1
Nos. (UR)
Qualification : Diploma in
Surveyor Ship
Age: 25yrs—40yrs.
Age Limits: Age will be counted
as 01-11-2012. Upper age
relaxation is as per norms.
Selection of the candidates will be
through Written Test. Admit card
and date/ venue of Written Test
will be intimated in due course to
the eligible candidates.
How to Apply: Interested and
eligible candidates may apply on
prescribed Application Form. The
Application Form should be
enclosed with Attested copies of
all documents and testimonials
such as – Qualification certificate,
Age proof, Caste and Etc.
Enclose two Nos. Self-addressed
envelopes with requisite Stamps
of Rs.5/- on each and
superscribe – “APPLICATION FOR
THE POST OF ____ CODE NO.___”
Application fee: Rs.100/- for
Group-C posts and Rs.50/- for
Group-D posts in form of
Banker’s Cheque or Demand
Draft.
SC/ST/PH categories do not
need to pay Application fee.
Superscribe the top of the
application form containing
envelope with Name of the post
applied for.
Last Date of Application:
Application form along with
enclosures must reach on or
before 22nd December 2012
(1:30 PM) at the following
address—
The Commissioner,
Siliguri Municipal Corporation
Baghajatin Road,
P.O. Siliguri,
Dist. Darjeeling
Pin code no. 734001

Chapter - 4 Child development and pedagogy

Child development and pedagogy

We all love children since they
bring joy to our lives.
However,some parents get stressed
dealing with them, and especially if
it is their first child.  To avoid this,
the first thing a parent should do
is understand the development
stage of that child. This way, he or
she will be able to identify the
needs of that child, and provide for
them.Here are a few tips to guide
all parents on child development
and pedagogy.

Emotional and social
development of the child:

Emotional development refers to
the ability of a child to express and
feel emotions. Social development
on the other hand refers to the
ability of the child to relate to
others and be independent. When a
child is born, they begin to learn
through every stage of their lives.
Socially and emotionally, chidlren
depend entirely on their parents,
sleep for long hour, are restless
and cry as their form of
communication. Parents at times
feel that the baby is being a
nuisance and some of them,
especially the mothers get stressed.
As a guide development of your
child, parents should understand
that the child can not emotionallly
or socially rely on themselves. This
is a very important tip on child
development and pedagogy.

Physical development:

As a guide to child development
and pedagogy, a parent must
understand how the child is
developing physically. How a
parent can understand this is by
watching the skills of the child. For
example,when the child grabs a
chair to support himself to stand.
Aso, children start to crawl,
attempt to stand up alone,point at
objects,attempt to pick objects or
even dropping and throwing toys.
All these are signs that your child
is developing physically. Some
parents feel burdened because of
have to lift the child up allthe time
or collecting the toys that have
been thrown away. However it is
very important that a parent
understands that this is part of the
development of a child. He or she
should therefore support the child
by helping him pick up the toys
and even encouraging the child to
stand using furniture in the
house.You should provide aslo
provide the toys and play
items.Alos, start reading interesting
stories for you child. You can buy
story books with pictures in it so
that your child some day can try
and emulate what he or she saw.
This way, child pedagogy and
developmeent will be enhanced.

Cognitive development:

As a guide to child development
and pedagogy, the way in which a
child gains the ability to think
creatively. We are all happy to see
our children manage to carry out
difficult tasks. When a child is
born, he may not be able to relate
to sound but with time, he will.
Cognitive signs of a child include
development of ideas and
communication using their eyes. A
parent can aid the child by pulling
faces at the child, displaying
brightly coloured objects, physical
contact and exposing the child to
differnet household noises.This is a
very important guide on child
development and pedagogy.
Speech and languge development
Speech and languge development is
another aspect on the child
development and pedagogy. All
children start by uttering a single
word. They then start combining
the words to make them two. As
they development, they can even
narrate stories. They also start
being very inquisitive.It is
important for parents to talk to
them, use gestures, offer the
children choices and give them
books to look at. Listen to your
child to avoid them from throwing
tantrums and also encourage
them.This is also an important
factor on child development and
pedagogy that should be
considered.

Chapter-3 Child Development and Theories

Child Development:

In modern parenting, child
development has become a very
important subject hence a need to
understand child development
theories. This is in contrast with
ancient times where children were
seen as small adult version and
therefore parents paid very little
attention on their advances in
language usage, physical growth
and cognitive abilities during their
childhood as well as adolescent
stages. Understanding child
development theories is important
for it allows one to appreciate
emotional, cognitive, social,
educational physical and social
growth that they undergo from
birth up to early adulthood. These
child development theories are
mainly categorized as grand
theories which describe all aspects
of development in each stage and
mini-theories which focus on one
aspect of progress.

Psychoanalytic Child
Development Theories:

These theories were authored by
Sigmund Freud. They emphasize
the significance of childhood
experiences and events but more
weight is put on mental disorders
instead of normal functioning.
Freud says that, child development
theories, consists of several of
'psychosexual stages' which are
oral, phallic, latency, and anal as
well as genital stage in their order
of occurrence. He hypothesizes
that, each of the stage has
satisfaction of the libido and plays
a role later in adult personality.
These child development theories
postulates that, if the completion
of the stage does not occur
successfully, the child gets fixated
in that stage which later influences
their adult behavior and
personality.
Erik Erikson proposed several child
development theories which
described human growth all
through the human life. According
to him, each stage in human life is
aimed at solving a conflict. For
instance, in adolescent stage the
primary conflict is to get a sense of
identity. These child development
theories postulate that, failure or
success to resolve the conflict at
every stage affects one overall
functioning. For instance, in
adolescent stage failure to attain
identity results in confusion of
roles. However, the Cognitive child
development theories proposed by
Jean Piaget Postulates that,
children and adults think
differently and that why he came
up with cognitive theory. According
to him, Children play a very active
role to gain world's knowledge
compared to adults. He says that,
children are "little scientists" who
play a very great role in
constructing and understanding
world knowledge.

Behavioral Child Development
Theories:

The idea of these child
development theories focus on
behavior in regard to
environmental interaction and are
based on child development
theories philosophers such as B.F
skinner, Ivan Pavlov and John B.
Watson. They deal with only
observable behavior. In this case
development is measured as a
reaction of punishments, rewards,
reinforcement and stimuli. These
child development theories are
considered different from others
because it does not consider
internal feelings and thoughts but
instead focusses on how knowledge
shapes an individual.

Social Child Development
Theories:

The social child development
theories proposed by John Bowlby
were first theory of social
development. According to him,
relationships at early ages with
care giver play a great role in
development of the child and
continue to affect their relationship
socially throughout their life.
Another sociologist by the name
Albert Bandura also suggested one
of the child development theories
called social education theory. In
his own perspective, children
usually acquire new behaviors by
observing from other people. In
contrast with child development
theories of behavior, he believed
that learning new things was
achieved not only in external
reinforcement but also intrinsic
reinforcements like sense of sense
of satisfaction, accomplishment
and pride may lead to learning.
Children acquire information and
new skills by looking at the actions
of those around them such as
peers, parents, caregivers among
others.

Chapter-2 Stages of Child Development

Stages of Child Development

Bringing a child home for the first
time is both exciting and scary.
Even when a mother has eight
more children in their home, each
child adds a brand new list of
challenges. Presently, there are
many new parenting books on the
market today and they are all
designed to help a parent with
encouraging the child to succeed in
life. Some of these parenting books
focus on various kinds of child
development stages and they can
help the parent with understanding
the stages that their child is
expected to go through.
For instance, there are several
theories that address child
development stages. While some
psychologists say that there are 4
stages of child development, others
may say child development has six
stages. Which means, there are
several distinct theories that have
emerged over time. One of the
most comprehensive theories of
child development stages, however,
was created by Lawrence Kohlberg.
The theory that he developed is
based on six stages and they are
obedience and punishment,
individualism, interpersonal
relations, social order, society and
the Individual, and universality.

Stage One and Two (Obedience
and Punishment, Individualism)
In stages one and two, the child is
introduced to obedience and
punishment, while they also
become aware of individualism.
During these child development
stages, the child learns that there
are rules established by people
who have authority and power over
them (specifically, the adults). In
addition to acknowledging rules,
the child knows that punishment is
the result if they are not followed.
In the first stage the child does not
have a moral sense of what is right
or wrong but they do know how to
avoid being disciplined by the
adult. As the child moves from
child development stages one to
stage two, they begin to realize
each individual is concerned about
his or her best interest. Good and
bad choices become grey instead of
black and white, since everyone
does not think or act the same. It
is called the individualism stage
because they do not view
themselves as part of any group.

Stages Three and Four
(Interpersonal Relations and
Social Order)
Interpersonal Relations and social
order has been classified as child
development stages three and four.
In these stages the child becomes
more aware of others around them.
Therefore, in stage four, they are
more concerned about pleasing
their parents instead of avoiding
punishment. They also begin to
show compassion and empathy for
others. As the child moves from
developing interpersonal relations
to social order, they begin to
identify with society as a whole.
They develop a sense of duty to
their local communities and their
country.

Stages Five and Six (Society and
the Individual, Universality)
In child development stages five
and six, the child will begin to
reevaluate their relationships with
their own country and abroad.
Which means, in child development
stages five they begin to determine
what is right for the societies is
not always right or idea for the
personal values that they hold. As
the child move into child
development stage six, they usually
focus on what is right as it relates
to human dignity issues.

Study material for WBTET 2012- Child development and pedagogy

Chapter -1
Child and Physical Development

Child physical development across
the world is among one of those
most vital issues which needs lots
of care so that young ones get that
good start of their inner desire. It
refers to various ways on how the
child reacts to psychological and
biological changes that usually
come during stages between child
birth and just before adolescence.
A good transition should be
allowed to occur evenly so that
kids move in an organized manner
from dependency world to that
autonomous world of various
ambiguities. Any parent or guardian
enabling such developments will
stand to enjoy the presence of such
children around them because they
will be able to avoid nuisance and
live up to society expectations.
A careful study of child
development is required in order
to get a very understanding of
developmental changes that occur
within the body of the baby. Past
studies have shown that various
changes are influenced by genetic
factors and prenatal events;
however, care is needed so as to
control such factors from affecting
the baby and its development.
Physical development also can
occur due to maturation of the
child which therefore means that
guided growth is necessary for the
baby to mature within the expected
fair path. Other children can
experience physical developments
through some surrounding events
such as learning which always exist
around the environment.
Another factor which contributes
to the child development is the
presence of various interactive
elements between two or more
minds. Parents need to find the
best interactive places and scenes
for their babies to develop the
correct mind for better future to
come by. Levels of intelligence
however, will be developed every
new day by uses of five common
senses held by all children.
Additionally, parents need to be
careful on every stage of their
children development because
some stages demand varying levels
of attention. Relevant and satisfying
items should be presented to
babies according to their ages for
better transformation and also to
improve proper attention that will
encourage many children to get
attracted to some events.
On issues such as body appearance
parents must never be scared at all
because sizes and shapes vary due
to food absorption rates. Some
children can absorb more into the
bloodstream while others at times
may not have that genetic capacity
to absorb more and thus have
slimmer bodies. Nutrition is
however a concern and it needs to
be guided as it affects child
development by greater percentage.
Balanced diets are needed so as to
promote healthy development of
the baby and also control other
body parts from developing other
problems as this can become so
costly to be dealt with by parents
and guardians.
Child physical development finally
may require regular exercises so as
to make the body of the baby to
have adequate metabolism and
hence be in a good position to
burn excess fat. This will assist in
reducing cases of obesity a
situation which can make children
to be wary of their condition and
thus develop unnecessary costly
stresses and depression. There is
need to be closer to children at
varying ages so as to educate them
effectively and give them hope for
the next day. Doing this will
however, improve positive mental
attitude for life and also clear any
confusion existing within the baby.

West Bengal Primary Teachers Recruitment 2012- Notification and information

Applications are invited for the
posts of Assistant Teachers in the
Govt. Aided/Sponsored Primary/
Junior Basic Schools under the
District Primary School Council /
Primary School Council to fill up
the vacancies as mentioned below.
The rules
of the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)
and other particulars are stated in
the following paragraphs. A
candidate should verify from the
notified rules vide No. 285-SE(EE)/
P/10M-6/09(pt.) dated 24.07.2012
that he/she is eligible for the TET
as
mentioned below:
1. Scale of Pay: Rs. 5400-
Rs.25200/- + Grade Pay as
admissible. Besides pay, the posts
carry allowances as admissible.
2. Qualification:
(a) Citizenship of India or such
other nationalities as are declared
eligible by Government of India,
(b) Higher Secondary pass under
the West Bengal Council of Higher
Secondary Education or its
equivalent with at least 50% marks
and 2-year Diploma in Elementary
Education (by whatever name
known),
(c) Higher Secondary pass under
the West Bengal Council of Higher
Secondary Education or its
equivalent with at least 45% marks
and 2-year Diploma in Elementary
Education (by whatever name
known),
(d) Higher Secondary pass under
the West Bengal Council of Higher
Secondary Education or its
equivalent with at least 50% marks
and Diploma in Education (Special
Education)
or (e) Graduation and two year
Diploma in Elementary Education
(by whatever name known), (f)
Ability to read, write and speak in
the language relating to the
medium for which the candidate
wishes to apply.
Note 1. – A person with D. Ed.
(Special Education) or B. Ed.
(Special Education) qualification
shall, after appointment, undergo
six month special programme in
Elementary Education recognized
by the NCTE.
Note 2 . – The persons having
qualification of Higher Secondary
pass under the West Bengal Council
of Higher Secondary Education or
its equivalent with at least 50%
marks or graduate (irrespective of
marks obtained therein) or
equivalent without 2-year
Diploma in Elementary Education
(by whatever name known) or 4-
year Bachelor of Elementary
Education (B. El. Ed.) or 2-year
Diploma in Education (Special
Education) shall also be eligible
for appearing in the Teacher
Eligibility Test (TET) to be
conducted for appointment of
primary school teachers in the
State upto 31st March, 2014,
subject to condition that those
who are appointed without
professional qualification shall
acquire the
professional qualification within
a period of two (2) years from
the year of appointment.
Provided that in case of Santhali
as medium of instruction, the
candidate shall only require to
possess proficiency of reading,
writing and speaking in OLCHIKI
SCRIPTS. It shall not be
obligatory for the candidates
seeking appointment to the post
of primary school teacher in
Santhali medium schools to have
passed in the specific language
as the first or the second
language in the Higher
Secondary Level or equivalent
for which medium of instruction,
the candidate is seeking
appointment.
Candidates belonging to reserved
categories SC/ST/OBC/PH/EC
shall be allowed relaxation upto
5% in the qualifying marks.
3. Age: Not less than 18 years
and more than 40 years as on
01.01.2012. Relaxation of upper
age for the reserved category
and Exempted Category
candidates shall be as per the
existing Rules of the State
Government.
4. Manner of Selection: (a) The
Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)
shall be held as per guidelines
issued from time to time by the
National Council for Teacher
Education and a person who will
score 60% or above in the
Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)
examination shall be considered as
Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) pass
provided relaxation upto 5% marks
shall be allowed to the candidates
belonging to the reserved
categories, such SC/ST/OBC/PH/EC.
(b) Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)
examination shall be held in 100
marks consisting of the
following five (5) Sections;
(a) Section I – Child
Development – 20 Marks
(b) Section II – Language I – 20
Marks
(c) Section III – Language II – 20
Marks
(d) Section IV – Mathematics –
20 Marks
(e) Section V – Environmental
Science – 20 Marks
Note 1. – All questions shall be
of multiple choice types with
four alternatives out of which
one option will be correct. All
questions shall be compulsory
and each item shall carry one
mark. But there will be no
negative marking.
Note 2. – First Language of the
candidate shall be determined as
per the medium of instruction of
the primary school for which the
vacancy occurred and Second
Language be English.
(c) The Selection Committee shall
call all Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)
qualified candidates as mentioned
in sub-rule (2), for the Viva-Voce/
interview. The performance of
the candidates who will be called
for Viva-Voce/interview shall be
assessed out of 10 marks by the
interview Board formed for the
specific purpose.
(d) Thereafter, academic, training,
performance in Teacher Eligibility
Test (TET), Extra Curricular
Activities and performance in Viva-
Voce/interview of the candidates
appeared at the Viva-Voce/
interview shall be computed in the
following
manner as mentioned in Table A
below:-
Table A
(i) Madhyamik pass under the
West Bengal Board of Secondary
Education or its equivalent 10
(ii) Higher Secondary pass under
the West Bengal Council of
Higher Secondary Education or
its equivalent 15
(iii) Training as prescribed in
sub-rule (2) of rule 6 20
(iv) Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)
40
(v) Extra Curricular Activities 05
(vi) Total 90
(vii) Viva-Voce or Interview 10
(viii) Total 100
Note 1. – The percentage of marks
to the total full marks obtained by
the candidate in the Madhyamik
Examination or its equivalent
excluding additional marks, if any,
shall be computed as percentage of
10.
Note 2. – The percentage of marks
to the total full marks obtained by
the candidate in the H.S.
Examination or its equivalent
excluding additional marks, if any,
shall be computed as percentage of
15.
Note 3. – 70% and above marks
obtained by the candidate in
Training shall be awarded 20, 50%
above but below 70% marks
obtained by the candidate in
Training shall be awarded 17 and
below 50% marks but passed in the
Training by
the candidate shall be awarded 15.
Note 4. – The percentage of marks
to the total full marks obtained by
the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)
qualified candidate in Teacher
Eligibility Test (TET), shall be
computed as percentage of 40.
Note 5. – Maximum five (5) Marks
shall be awarded to the candidates
in the Extra Curriculum Activities
on the following Extra
Curriculum Activities:-
1 Games and Sports 1
2 National Cadet Corps (NCC) 1
3 Arts and Literature 1
4 Performing Art (Drama) 1
5 Music 1
Total 5
(a) A certificate of representation
in the State/National/International
level Games or Sports issued by the
Competent State Govt. or Central
Government Authorities or
agencies, shall be awarded (01)
mark.
(b) Minimum ‘A’ certificate of
National Cadet Corps (NCC) shall be
awarded (01) mark.
(c) A certificate that any essay,
story, short story, drama, poetry
written by the candidate selected
for publication in State Level or
National newspaper or Magazine
(Certificate along with a copy of
publication shall be submitted),
shall be
awarded (01) mark.
(d) A certificate that the candidate
has obtained proficiency in
Performing Art (drama) issued by
National School of Drama or by the
State Government or Central
Government shall be awarded (01)
mark.
(e) A certificate that the candidate
has obtained proficiency in Music
or Instrumental Music issued by
the State Government or Central
Government shall be awarded (01)
mark.
5. Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) will
be conducted by the Board on a
single day throughout the State of
West Bengal.
6. Date of TEACHER ELIGIBILITY
TEST (TET) shall be notified
later.
7. Application Form: Notification
for collection of the Information
Booklet-cum-Application Form on
payment of Rs. 100/- (Rs. 25/- for
SC/ST) will be published on
November 15, 2012 in the
newspapers.