West Bengal Police requires 2940 lady constables. Apply within 22/04/2013 to 2/05/2013

WEST BENGAL POLICE IS
RECRUITING 2940 LADY
CONSTABLE. NOTIFICATION
NO. 1024-PL/PB/3P-14/11
DATED 26/03/2013. APPLY ON
PRESCRIBED FORM FROM
DATED 22/04/2013 TO
22/05/2013.
LADY CONSTABLE IN WEST
BENGAL POLICE, 2013
Number of Vacancies: 2,940
Nos.
Reservation of the post for SC/
ST/OBC/Exempted Category
and Ex-serviceman is as per
Govt. norms.
Educational Qualification:
Madhyamik Pass or equivalent.
Age Limits: Between 18yrs to
27yrs as on 01-01-2013. Upper
age relaxation for SC/ST- 5yrs;
OBC- 3yrs; PWD- 10yrs; Ex-
Serviceman & any other
Categories - As per Govt. norms
N.B: Only SC/ST and OBC
candidates of West Bengal are
eligible for upper age relaxation.
Candidates from other States
may apply as General
candidates.
Pay Scale: Rs.5400 – 25200 and
Grade pay: Rs.2600/- plus other
allowances.
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:
Minimum Physical Measurement
of the candidates —
Height — 160cms (152cms for
Gorkhas, Garwalies, Rajbanshis
and Scheduled Tribes)
Weight— As per medical
standards (proportionate to
height and age)
Selection of the candidates will
be through Physical
Measurement Test (PMT) ,
Physical Efficiency Test (PET),
Written Examination, Interview
and finally Medical Examination.
Date and venue of recruitment
process will be intimated in due
course .
PHYSICAL MEASUREMENT
TEST (PMT):-
The height and weight of the
candidates will be measured by
Electronic Machines.
PHYSICAL EFFICIENCY TEST
(PET):-
Candidates will have to complete
400 meters race in maximum 2
minutes. Physical Efficiency Test
will be a qualifying in nature.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION:-
Full Marks -90
The candidates who qualify in
PMT and PET will called for
written examination. The written
examination will be conducted by
West Bengal Police Recruitment
Board. The written examination
will have Multiple objective type
questions (MCQ) on OMR Sheet
on the following  topics —
General Awareness, General
Knowledge and Elementary
Mathematics. There will also be
a few questions which will test
the candidate’s ability to
distinguish patterns.
There will be negative marking
for wrong answer.
INTERVIEW:-Full Marks-10
Only candidates shortlisted after
Written Examination will be
called for Interview. In the
interview, the general awareness
of the candidate will be tested.
The interview will be conducted
by West Bengal Police
Recruitment Board through
Range Recruitment Boards.
MEDICAL EXAMINATION:
Finally candidates will have to go
through Medical Examination at
the designated Hospitals. The
candidates must not have knock-
knee, flat foot, varicose vein and
squint eyes. Candidate should
have a good mental and physical
health and free from any
physical deformity likely to
interfere with efficient
performance with her duties.
Eye Sight: The minimum vision
should be 6/6 with or without
glasses. They should possess high
colour vision and should not be
color blind.
HOW TO APPLY:
Apply on prescribed application
format. The prescribed
application form with detailed
Information Brochure will be
available from the office of the
Superintendents of Police of all
districts and the office of the
Commissioner’s of Police of all
Police Commissionerate (except
Kolkata) on all working days
between 10 AM and 05:30 PM
from 22/04/2013 to 22/05/2013.
Application form will be issued to
the candidates only after
providing Bank Draft / Postal
Order of Rs.150/- OR Caste
Certificate (in case of SC/ST
category of West Bengal Only)
OR ID card issued by the
Labour Department of West
Bengal (in case of Exempted
Category)
During submission of Application
form, candidates must enclose
the Attested copies of
testimonials and documents in
support of eligibility, such as —
Education Qualification
Certificate, Age proof documents
(Admit card/ Madhyamik
Certificate), Caste Certificate (is
SC/ST/OBC), ID Card (for
Exempted category), PWD
certificate (for PH candidates),
Discharge certificate (for Ex-
Serviceman), Etc and Application
fee in form of Demand Draft/
Indian Postal Order.
Application fee: Candidates must
pay Application fee of Rs.150/-
in form of Account payee
Demand Draft or Indian Postal
Order drawn in favour “West
Bengal Police Recruitment
Board” payable at Kolkata.
SC/ST and Exempted candidates
of West Bengal are not require
to pay Application fee.
N.B: CANDIDATES MUST
PREPARE THE DEMAND
DRAFT/ INDIAN POSTAL
ORDER ONLY ON OR AFTER
22/04/2013 .
Duly filled up Application Form
along with two photographs and
copies of all certificates are to be
placed in an envelope of size 34
cm X 26 cm . The application
form should not be folded.
Candidates must subscribe the
top of the envelope in bold as —
“APPLICATION FOR THE
POST OF LADY CONSTABLE
IN WEST BENGAL POLICE -
2013”.
On the right side of the envelope
write the address — “TO THE
CHAIRMAN, WEST BENGAL
POLICE RECRUITMENT
BOARD, ARAKSHA BHAVAN,
SECTOR-II, BLOCK-DJ, SALT
LAKE CITY, KOLKATA-700
091”. On the left side of the
envelope please write “From”
followed by your name and full
address.
Candidates may send the
application form at the above
address by Post or can be
submitted at the same place
from where it has been
collected.
Last Date of Application:
Application form is to be
submitted or must reach on or
before – 23rd May 2013.
Please note, Application form will
be issued from dated
22-04-2013 to 22-05-2013 at
the above mentioned offices.

LIC requires 750 assistant administrative officers!

LIFE INSURANCE
CORPORATION OF INDIA
(LIC) REQUIRES 750
ASSISTANT
ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICER.
APPLY ONLINE WITHIN
01/04/2013.
Name of the Post: Assistant
Administrative Officer
Number of Vacancies: 750 Nos.
(Gen—379; SC—114; ST—56;
OBC—201). Out of total -23 Nos.
for PH candidates
Qualification Required:
Bachelor’s / Master’s degree
with 55% marks in aggregate.
Age Limits: between 21yrs to
30yrs as on 01-03-2013. Upper
age relaxation for OBC—3yrs;
SC/ST—5yrs; PH—10yrs and
others (if any)—as per norms.
Basic Pay: Rs.17240/- per month
Candidates will be on probation
for 2yrs.
Application Fee: Rs.500/- (Rs.50
for SC/ST/PH candidates). Fee
can be deposited in any branch
of State Bank of India by means
of fee challan. Fee challan will be
generated automatically during
online registration.
Fee can be also paid online
through net banking/ debit card
during filling the online
application.
The selection of the candidates
will be through Online test.
Candidates may download the
Admit card/ Call letters from the
official website of LIC from the
first week of May, 2013. (Refer
the Advt. for details)
Tentative date of Online
Examination—11th or 12th May
2013.
How to Apply: Apply Online only
from the official website of LIC
— www.licindia.in/careers.htm
After final submission of Online
application form, candidates must
save the system generated slip
for future use.
Last Date of the Application:
Eligible candidates may apply
online from dated 5th March to
01st April 2013.
Before applying online, please go
through the officially released
advertisement for eligibility
norms and criteria. Visit the
following link for details and
online application – http://
www.licindia.in/
careers_pop0004.htm

430 Head Constables in BSF

BORDER SECURITY FORCE
(BSF) REQUIRES 430 HEAD
CONSTABLE (RADIO
OPERATOR) AGAINST
SPECIAL RECRUITMENT
DRIVE FOR SC/ST AND OBC.
LAST DATE: 28/02/2013.
HEAD CONSTABLE (RADIO
OPERATOR): 430Nos. (OBC—
82; SC—233; ST—115). Out of
total, 10% is reserved for Ex-
Serviceman.
Qualification: Matriculation or
equivalent with 2yrs of ITI
Certificate in Radio and TV or
Electronics or Intermediate
OR Higher Secondary (10+2)
with Physics, Chemistry &
Mathematics
Age Limits: between 18yrs to
28yrs in case of OBC candidates
(18yrs – 30yrs in case of SC/ST)
as on last date of application.
Pay scale: Rs.5200—Rs.20200
and Grade pay: Rs.2400/- per
month plus other allowances.
Selection of the candidates will
be through Written Test,
Documentation/ PST/ PET/
Dictation Test/ Interview and
Final Medical test.
Written Test will be on 24th
march 2013. Qualified candidates
will be called for further steps.
The list of qualified candidates
will be available in the official
website of BSF — www.bsf.nic.in
Physical Standards of
Candidates:—
For Male Candidates: Height—
168cms; Chest (Unexpanded/
Expanded) – 80cms/85cms;
Weight—Corresponding to
Height.
For Female Candidates: Height—
157cms; Height—Corresponding
to Height.
Cut-off in Height and Chest
measurement for the candidates
of Hilly regions and ST/Adivasis
is as per norms (Refer Advt.,
Link given below)
Medical Standards:—
Eye Sight : 6/6 and 6/9 of the
both eyes without correction in
minimum distant vision.
Candidates must not have
knock-knees, Flat feet or squint
in eyes and must not have
physical defect/ deformity.
Physical Efficiency Test (PET) —
For Male candidates:—
Race of 1.6 Km in 6.5 minutes
Long Jump of 11 ft in 3 chances.
High Jump of 3 and half feet in 3
chances
For Female Candidates: —
Race of 800 mtrs in 4 minutes
9 ft long jump in 3 chances.
3ft High Jump in 3 chances.
N. B: No Physical Efficiency Test
(PET) for Ex-Serviceman.
Dictation Test will in English
which will be of 10marks and
Personal Interview of 25 marks.
Finally candidates will be go
Medical examination for fitness
test.
How to Apply: Candidates may
apply on prescribed Application
format. The Application along
with attested copies of
testimonials must reach the
respective address of the
respective centres. (Refer the
Advt. for list of Address. Link
given below).
Application fee: Candidates must
prepare Indian Postal Order
(IPO) or Crossed Bank Draft of
Rs.50/- drawn in favour of the
Inspector General/ DIG/ Comdt
to whom the application is
addressed and payable at
respective SBI/Post Office.
Only OBC candidates will have
to pay Application fee. SC/ST
candidates are exempted from
fee.
Last Date of Application:
Application form should reach at
the respective centres on or
before – 28th Feb 2013.
For detailed Advt. and
Application form, please visit the
following link — http://bsf.nic.in/
doc/recruitment/r25.pdf

CISF invites backlog vacancies in the post of Head Constable Clerk!!

CENTRAL INDUSTRIAL
SECURITY FORCE (CISF)
INVITES FOR BACKLOG
VACANCIES IN THE POST OF
– HEAD CONSTABLE CLERK
(MINISTERAIL). LAST DATE
OF APPLICATION:
26-02-2013.
HEAD CONSTABLE - CLERK
(MINISTERIAL)
No. of Vacancies: 464 Nos. (OBC
—195; SC—88; ST—59; Ex-
Serviceman—122)
15 % of the vacancies are
reserved for women. In case
suitable women candidates are
not available then the vacancies
will be filled by suitable male
candidates.
Qualification Required:
Intermediate or 10+2 from
recognized Board/ University.
Age Limits: between 18yrs to
25yrs as on 01-08-2012. Upper
age relaxation for OBC—3yrs;
SC/ST—5yrs. Ex-Serviceman and
Others—as per Govt. norms.
Pay scale: Rs.5200—20200 with
Grade pay: Rs.2400/- per
month.
Physical Standards—
For Male candidates: Height—
167.5cms (162.5cms for ST);
Chest (Unexpanded/ Expanded) :
81/ 86cms (76/ 81 for ST
candidates)
For Female Candidates: Height—
157cms (152.5 cms for ST
candidates); Chest—Not
applicable.
Weight: Corresponding to Height.
Eye sight: 6/6 in one eye and
6/9 in other eye in minimum
distant vision without correction.
N.B. Cut-off in Height and Chest
for candidates falling in the
categories of Garhwalis,
Kumaoni, Gorkhas, Dogras and
Marathas and candidates
belonging to the states of Sikkim,
Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh,
Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram,
Meghalaya, Assam, Himachal
Pradesh, Kashmir and Leh &
Ladakh regions of J&K is as per
norms (Refer the Advt.)
Candidates must be physically fit.
Candidates must not have Knock
knee, Flat Foot, Squint in eyes or
Varicose vein and they should
possess high colour vision. They
must be in good mental and
bodily health and free from any
physical defect likely to interfere
with the efficient performance of
the duties.
The recruitment will be done on
All India Basis. The selected
candidates will be posted any
where in India.
Selection of the candidates will
be through Height and Weight
Measurement, Written
Examination,  Computer skill test
and Medical examination.
Written Examination will be
Objective type question on
General Intelligence, GK,
General English or Hindi and
Arithmetic.
Computer test will be English
typing of 35 words per minute
and 30 words pm in Hindi typing.
Application fee: Rs.50/- in form
of crossed Indian Postal Order
(IPO) drawn in favour of the
Officer to whom application
should be sent.
For list of addresses, refer the
officially released advertisement
(link given below). For candidates
residing in West Bengal may
prepare the Indian Postal Order
(IPO) in favour of – “Asstt.
Comdt (DDO), CISF NEZ
Kolkata” and payable at – GPO
Kolkata.
How to Apply: Apply on
prescribed Application format
along with attested copies of
testimonials and documents
(Attestation by Gazetted
Officer), 3 Nos. self-addressed
envelope (12x27cms) (Out three
self addressed envelopes, two
envelopes must be affixed with
postal stamp of Rs. 22/)
The envelop should be super-
scribe “APPLICATION FOR
THE POST OF HEAD
CONSTABLE (MINISTERIAL)
Address to send the application
form: Candidates must send their
Application Form at the
concerned DIG of CISF. For list
of Addresses and Application
Form, please visit the below
given link/ url.
For candidates residing in West
Bengal must send their
application at – “DIG, CISF
(North East Zone) Premises NO.
553, East Kolkata Township
(Kasba) Kolkata-107”.
Last Date of Application:
Application form must reach on
or before – 26th February 2013
(by 05-03-2013 in case of
residents of North East Region.
For detailed Advt. and
Application form, please visit the
following link — http://cisf.nic.in/
RECRUITMENT_files/
Head_Constable_Clerk_2013.
htm

Probationary Officers in State Bank of India! Apply online from 30/01/2013

STATE BANK OF INDIA
REQUIRES 1500
PROBATIONARY OFFICER.
ADVERTISEMENT NO. CRPD/
PO/2012-13/04. APPLY
ONLINE FROM 30-01-2013 TO
23-02-2013.
PROBATIONARY OFFICERS
No. of Vacancies: 1500 (Gen—
758; OBC—405; SC—225; ST—
112). Out of total vacancies;
44nos. PWD (VH—22; OH—22)
Qualification: Graduation in any
Discipline or equivalent.
Age Limits: Not below 21yrs and
not above 30yrs as on
01-01-2013. Upper age
relaxation for OBC—3yrs; SC/ST
—5yrs; PWD—10yrs and Others
—as per norms.
Pay scale: Rs.14500—25700.
Starting basic pay is Rs.16900/-
Selection of the candidates will
be in two phase—
Phase-I: Written Examination of
250 marks consisting of Objective
Test and Descriptive Test.
Objective Test will be on
following subjects — (a) Test of
English Language (Grammer,
Vocabulary, Comprehension etc),
(b) Test of General Awareness,
Marketing and Computers, (c)
Test of Data Analysis and
Interpretation and (d) Test of
Reasoning (High Level)
Descriptive Test will be on —
“Test of English Language
(comprehension, short précis,
letter writing & essay)”
Phase-II: Group Discussion of
20 marks and Interview of 30
marks.
Written Examination will be on
28-04-2013 and will be held at
respective centres of SBI
available State wise. (Refer the
Advt. for details. Link given
below)
Application fee: Rs.200/- for
General and Others AND
Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD
candidates. Application fee can
be paid Offline or Online.
Fee will be accepted from 2nd
working day after registration
and can be made within three
working days at any branch of
State Bank of India. System
generated fee payment challan
will be used for depositing fee.
Once fee is paid, the registration
process is completed.
Candidates may pay the fee
online during making the online
application fee. No Fee Payment
Challan will be generated in this
case.
How to Apply: Apply Online only
from the official website of State
Bank of India —
www.statebankofindia.com OR
www.sbi.co.in
After successful submission of
Online application fee; print-out
the Registration Slip and retain
safely for future use.
The candidates should download
their call letter and an “acquaint
yourself” booklet by entering
their registration number and
password / date of birth, after
08.04.2013 from the Bank’s
website.
Last Date of Application: Online
Application Form can be made
from dated – 30-01-2013 to
23-02-2013. (Application fee can
be paid from 01-02-2013 to
28-02-2013).
Date of Written Examination:
28-04-2013 (Sunday)
Before applying online, please go
through officially released
advertisement for Qualification
norms and Eligibility criteria. For
detailed Advt. and Application
form, please visit the following
link — http://www.sbi.co.in/
webfiles/uploads/
files/1358933833794_SBI_PO_
ADVT_JAN13.pdf . For Online
application, visit - www.sbi.co.in
and click the link named
"Recruitment".

WBTET sample questions on child development and pedagogy!

WB TET Sample Question Paper
on Child Development and
Pedagogy which includes
educational psychology of
teaching and learning etc.
1. Most important work of teacher
is—
(A) to organize teaching work
(B) to deliver lecture in class
(C) to take care of children
(D) to evaluate the students
2. A teacher should be—
(A) Honest
(B) Dilligent
(C) Dutiful
(D) Punctual
3. Environmental education should
be taught in schools because—
(A) it will affect environmental
pollution
(B) it is important part of life
(C) it will provide job to teachers
(D) we cannot escape from
environment
4. Navodaya Schools have been
established to—
(A) increase number of school in
rural areas
(B) provide good education in rural
areas
(C) complete ‘Sarva Shiksha
Abhiyan’
(D) check wastage of education in
rural areas
5. At primary level, it is better to
teach in mother language because—
(A) it develops self-confidence in
children
(B) it makes learning easy
(C) it is helpful in intellectual
development
(D) it helps children in learning in
natural atmosphere
6. Women are better teacher at
primary level because—
(A) they behave more patiently
with children
(B) they are ready to work with
low salary
(C) higher qualification is not
needed in this profession
(D) they have less chances in other
profession
7. You have been selected in all the
four professions given below.
Where would you like to go ?
(A) Teacher
(B) Police
(C) Army
(D) Bank
8. What is most important while
writing on blackboard ?
(A) Good writing
(B) Clarity in writing
(C) Writing in big letters
(D) Writing in small letters
9. Some students send a greeting
card to you on teacher’s day. What
will you do ? You will—
(A) do nothing
(B) say thanks to them
(C) ask them to not to waste money
(D) reciprocate the good wishes to
them
10. A student comes late in your
class. Then you will—
(A) inform to parents
(B) punish him
(C) try to know the reason
(D) not pay attention there
11. When the students become
failed, it can be understood that—
(A) The system has failed
(B) The teachers failure
(C) The text-books failure
(D) The individual student’s failure
12. It is advantage of giving home
work that students—
(A) remain busy at home
(B) study at home
(C) may be checked for their
progress
(D) may develop habit of self study
15. A teacher has serious defect is
he/she—
(A) is physically handicapped
(B) belongs to low socio-economic
status
(C) has weak personality
(D) has immature mental
development
16. The success of teacher is—
(A) high achievement of students
(B) good traits of his/her
personality
(C) his/her good teaching
(D) his/her good character
17. A Deepawali fair is being
organized in your school. What
would you like to do ?
(A) only to visit the fair
(B) to take part in function
(C) to take a shop to sell something
(D) to distribute free water to
visitors
18. The most important trait of a
student is—
(A) sense of responsibility
(B) to speak truth
(C) co-operation
(D) obedience
19. The purpose of basic education
scheme is—
(A) universalization of primary
education
(B) to vocationalise the eduction
(C) to fulfil basic need of persons
through education
(D) to make education compulsory
for all
20. You are teaching a topic in class
and a student ask a question
unrelated to the topic. What will
you do ?
(A) you will allow him to ask
unrelated question
(B) you will not allow him to ask
unrealated question
(C) you will consider it indiscipline
and punish him
(D) you will answer the question
after the class
21. If you are unable to get a job of
teacher, then you will—
(A) start giving tuition at home
(B) remain at home till you get a
job
(C) take some another job
(D) continue applying for teaching
22. A teacher can motivate the
students by—
(A) giving suitable prizes
(B) giving proper guidance
(C) giving examples
(D) delivering speech in class
23. If a student does not pay any
respect to you, then you will—
(A) ignore him
(B) award less marks in
examination
(C) talk to his/her parents
(D) rebuke him
25. The aim of National Council for
teacher education is—
(A) to open college of education
(B) to promote research in
education
(C) to maintain standards in
colleges of education
(D) to provide grant to colleges of
education
26. Kindergarten system of
education was contributed by—
(A) T. P. Nunn
(B) Spencer
(C) Froebel
(D) Montessori
27. ‘National Council of Educational
Research and Training’ was
established in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
28. Essay type test are not reliable
because—
(A) their answers are different
(B) their results are different
(C) their checking is affected by
examiner’s mood
(D) their responding styles are
different
29. A guardian never comes to see
you in school.
You will—
(A) ignore the child
(B) write to the guardian
(C) go to meet him youself
(D) start punishing the child
30. To maintain interest among
students in class, a teacher should—
(A) use blackboard
(B) discuss
(C) tell stories
(D) ask question
31. The purpose of new education
policy is—
(A) to provide equal opportunity of
education to all
(B) to improve the whole education
system
(C) to link the education with
employment
(D) to delink the degree with
education
32. To raise the standard of
education, it is necessary—
(A) to evaluate students
continuously
(B) to give high salary to teachers
(C) to revise curriculum
(D) to make good school building
33. What is most important for a
teacher ?
(A) to maintain discipline in class
(B) to be punctual in class
(C) to remove difficulties of
students
(D) to be good orator
34. Why students should play
games in school ?
(A) It makes them physically strong
(B) It makes work easier for
teachers
(C) It helps in passing time
(D) It develops co-operation and
physical balance
35. Family is a means of—
(A) Informal education
(B) Formal education
(C) Non-formal education
(D) Distance education
36. There is tension among villagers
and you are teacher there. What
will you do ?
(A) You will inform “Gram
Pradhan”
(B) You will try to pacify them
(C) You will report to police
(D) You will keep distance from
them
37. A teacher can develop social
values among students by—
(A) telling them about great people
(B) developing sense of discipline
(C) behaving ideally
(D) telling them good stories
38. What will you do in leisure time
in school ?
You will—
(A) take rest in teacher’s room
(B) read magazines in library
(C) talk to clerks in office
(D) check home work of students
39. A teacher asks the questions in
the class to—
(A) keep students busy
(B) maintain discipline
(C) attract student’s attention
(D) teach
40. You like teaching profession
because—
(A) it has less responsibility
(B) you are interested in it
(C) it is easy
(D) it provide you more holidays
41. How the students should be
motivated to get success in life ?
(A) Selected study
(B) Incidental study
(C) Intensive study
(D) Learning by recitation
42. In context of the habit of
Absenteeism of student—
(A) The principal and parents
should get worried
(B) The officials of the schools
should take action against them as
per school’s discipline
(C) The teachers should take it as a
serious problem
(D) They should be given less
priority in the class room in
relation to regular students
43. To whom the responsibility of
organisation of curricular activities
should be stored with ?
(A) The principal
(B) The teacher who is appointed
for this work
(C) The teachers who take interest
in it
(D) All the teachers
44.
When the students try to solve the
questions in some different way as
taught by the teacher from
prescribed books, then these
students should
be—
(A) Discouraged to consult some
other books on the subject
(B) Encouraged to consult some
other books on the subject
(C) Suggested to talk with their
teacher after the period
(D) Suggested to follow the class
room notes in order to get good
mark in the examination
45. The experienced teachers do not
require the detailed lesson plan of
a topic because—
(A) They can teach in a good
manner without its help
(B) The number of curious students
is very poor in the class
(C) When they commit some
mistake, they do not face any
challange from their students
(D) They can equip themselves with
brief outline as they gain
specialisation in it through
experience
46. The problem of drop-out in
which students leave their
schooling in early years can be
tackled in a better way through—
(A) Reduction of the weight of
curriculum
(B) Sympathy of teachers
(C) Attractive environment of the
school
(D) Encouragement of the students
47. The ideal teacher—
(A) Teaches the whole curriculum
(B) Helps his students in learning
(C) Is a friend, philosopher and
guide
(D) Maintains good discipline
48. The aim of education should be
—
(A) To develop vocational skills in
the students
(B) To develop social awareness in
the students
(C) To prepare the students for
examination
(D) To prepare the students for
practical life
49. The best method of checking
student’s homework is—
(A) To assign it to intelligent
students of the class
(B) To check the answers in the
class in group manner
(C) To check them with the help of
specimen answer
(D) To check by the teacher himself
in a regular way
50. A time bound testing
programme for a students should
be implemented in Shools so that—
(A) The progress of the students
should be informed to their parents
(B) A regular practice can be
carried out
(C) The students can be trained for
final examinations
(D) The remedial programme can
be adopted on the basis of the
feedback from the results
51. The essential element of the
syllabus for the children remained
out of school should be—
(A) Literacy competencies
(B) Life-skills
(C) Numerical competencies
(D) Vocational competencies
53. The priority to girls education
should be given because—
(A) The girls are more intelligent in
comparison than the boys
(B) The girls are lesser in number
than boys
(C) The girls were badly
discriminated in favour of boys in
the past
(D) Only girls are capable of leading
for social change
54. The success of integrated
education depends on—
(A) The support of community
(B) The excellence of text-books
(C) The highest quality of teaching-
learning material
(D) The attitudinal changes in
teachers
55. The quality of schools education
is exclusively depending upon—
(A) Infrastructural facilities
(B) Financial provisions
(C) International support
(D) The quality of teacher education
56. The idea of Basic Education is
propounded by—
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
57. The most important indicator of
quality of education in a school is—
(A) Infrastructural facilities of a
school
(B) Classroom system
(C) Text-books and Teaching-
learning material
(D) Student Achievement level
58. The best remedy of the
student’s problems related with
learning is—
(A) Suggestion for hard work
(B) Supervised study in Library
(C) Suggestion for private tuition
(D) Diagnostic teaching
59. The in-service teacher’ training
can be made more effective by—
(A) Using training package which in
wellprepared in advance
(B) Making it a residential
programme
(C) Using co-operative approach
(D) Practising training followup
procedures
60. Child Labour Prohibition Act
(1986)—
(A) Prohibits all types of child
labour upto 14 years of age of child
(B) Prohibits child labour in risk-
taking works only
(C) Prohibits child labour during
school hours only
(D) Prohibits child labour by
imposing the responsibility of
children’s education on the
employers
Answers:
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6.
(A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17.
(B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (A) 25. (C) 26.
(C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35.
(A) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C)
40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45.
(D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D)
50. (D)
51. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (D) 56.
(C) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A)

1267 Male and lady constables in West Bengal Excise Department!! Hurry!!

WEST BENGAL POLICE
RECRUITMENT BOARD, WEST
BENGAL EXCISE
DEPARTMENT, RECRUITING
1267 EXCISE CONSTABLE/
LADY EXCISE CONSTABLE
FOR DIFFERENT EXCISE
DIVISIONS. APPLY BETWEEN
24-01-2013 TO 25-02-2013.
1. Excise Constable/ Lady Excise
Constable: 1267 Nos.
— Male: 1109 Nos.
— Female: 158 Nos.
No. of vacancies according to
Excise Division/ Organisation are
as follows —
1. Durgapur Excise Division:
Male—158; Female—24
2. Bardhaman Excise Division:
Male—208; Female—28
3. Jalpaiguri Excise Division:
Male—80; Female—22
4. Malda Excise Division: Male—
75; Female—14
5. Alipur Excise Division: Male—
162; Female—20
6. Barrackpore Excise Division:
Male—180; Female—10
7. Krishnanagar Excise Division:
Male—100; Female—18
8. Kharagapur Excise Division:
Male—128; Female—22
9. Special Section, West Bengal:
Male—18; Female—Nil
Reservation of posts is as per
Govt. norms.
On recruitment a candidate may
be posted in any Division /
Organization or in any Excise
District under the jurisdiction of
such division
Qualification Required:
Madhyamik pass from West
Bengal Board of Secondary
Education or equivalent under
State/ Central Govt.
Age Limits: Candidates must be
between 18yrs to 27yrs as on
01-01-2013 . Upper age
relaxation for SC/ST—5yrs; OBC
—3yrs. Others—as per norms.
Age relaxation is applicable for
candidates of West Bengal only.
Pay scale: Rs.5400—25200 with
Grade pay: Rs.2600 per month
plus other allowances.
Physical Standards of the
Candidates:—
Height: For Male candidates—167
cms (160 cms for Gorkhas,
Garwalies, Rajbanshis and ST)
Height: For Female Candidates —
160 cms (152cms for Gorkhas,
Garwalies, Rajbanshis and ST)
Chest (Unexpanded/ Expanded):
For Male candidates only—
78cms/ 83cms (76cms/81cms for
Gorkhas, Garwalies, Rajbanshis
and ST)
Weight: Proportionate to Age
and Height as per medical
standard, for both male and
female.
Selection of the Candidates will
be through Physical
measurement Test (PMT),
Physical Efficiency Test
(PET),Written Examination and
Interview. Finally there will be
Medical examination for fitness.
Physical Efficiency Test (PET) –
i) For Male Candidates:- Long
distance run 1600 meters in
maximum 06 minute and 30
seconds.
ii) For Female Candidates:- Long
distance run 400 meters in
maximum 02 minutes.
Written Examination (Full Marks:
90)—
Those who qualify in PMT and
PET will be asked to appear in
Written Examination. The
Written Examination will be
conducted by the West Bengal
Police Recruitment Board. The
Written Examination will have
objective type questions (MCQ)
on General Awareness and
General Knowledge, English,
Elementary Mathematics and
Reasoning. The candidates will
have to fill up the correct blank
spaces against a question
number on the machine readable
OMR answer sheet.
Interview (Full marks: 10)
Those who qualify in the written
test, will be eligible for interview.
In the interview, the general
awareness of the candidate will
be tested. The interview will be
conducted by West Bengal Police
Recruitment Board through
Range Recruitment Boards.
How to Apply: The eligible
candidates may purchase the
Application Form along with
detailed Information Brochure,
on production of Bank Draft /
Postal Order of Rs.150/ -, from
the Office of the Superintendent
of Police of all districts and the
office of the Commissioner of
Police of all Police
Commissionerate (except
Kolkata) from 24.01.2013 to
24.02.2013 .
N.B: SC/ST and Exempted
categories of West Bengal are
not required to pay Application
fee in form of Draft/ Postal
Order.
Eligible Candidates may submit
the Application Form duly filled
up in their own handwriting
along with the following
enclosures— Educational
Qualification certificates, Age
Proof, Caste Certificate, 3 Nos.
passport size photograph (One
copy is to be pasted on the form
and other two copies enclosed
after writing Application Form
Serial No. on reverse side), Fee
in form of Draft/ Postal Order
(Not required in case of SC/ST/
Exempted categories of West
Bengal but they should submit
Attested copies of Caste
Certificate otherwise their
application will be rejected)
Application fee: Candidates must
deposit a fee of Rs. 150/-
(Rupees one hundred fifty only)
in the form of A/C Payee
Demand Draft from any
Nationalized Bank / IPO
purchased in favour of “West
Bengal Police Recruitment
Board” payable at Kolkata.
SC/ST/Exempted categories of
West Bengal do not require to
pay application fee. SC/ST
Candidates of Other States
should apply as General
candidates.
Duly filled up Application Form
along with two photographs and
copies of all certificates are to be
placed in an envelope of size 34
cm X 26 cm. The application
form should not be folded. The
envelope should be properly
sealed. On the top of this
envelope please write
“APPLICATION FOR THE
POST OF EXCISE
CONSTABLE / LADY EXCISE
CONSTABLE - 2013” On the
right side of the envelope please
write “TO THE CHAIRMAN,
WEST BENGAL POLICE
RECRUITMENT BOARD,
ARAKSHA BHAVAN (PCC),
SECTOR-II, BLOCK-DJ, SALT
LAKE CITY, KOLKATA-700
091”.
Application form may be
deposited at the same place
from where it was issued or can
be sent directly to the Chairman,
West Bengal Police Recruitment
Board by post. On the left side
of the envelope please write
“From” followed by your name
and full address
Last Date of Application:
Application must reach the
above address of West Bengal
Police Recruitment Board on or
before 25th January 2013.
APPLICATION FORM WILL
BE AVAILABLE FROM THE
OFFICE OF THE
SUPERINTENDENT OF
POLICE OF ALL DISTRICTS
AND THE OFFICE OF THE
COMMISSIONER OF POLICE
OF ALL POLICE
COMMISSIONERATE (EXCEPT
KOLKATA) FROM 24.01.2013
TO 24.02.2013.
For detailed Advt. and
Application form, please visit the
following link — http://
wbexcise.gov.in/writereaddata/
Information%20Brochure.pdf

West Bengal College Service Commission is recruiting assistant professor and librarians!

West Bengal
College Service Commission
(WBCSC), Kolkata, is recruiting
1546 Assistant Professor and
Librarians for different
Government aided Colleges
(Both General Degree and
Teachers’ Training College) in
West Bengal. Eligible and
Interested candidates may apply
for the post through Online
submission of Application Form.
Qualification requirement and
eligibility criteria is given below in
brief. Advertisement No. 1/2012.
—
WEST BENGAL COLLEGE
SERVICE COMMISSION
REQUIRES APPROX 1546
ASSISTANT PROFESSOR AND
LIBRARIANS FOR
DIFFERENT GOVT.  AIDED
COLLEGES IN WEST BENGAL.
APPLY ONLINE ON OR
BEFORE – 21-01-2013.
1. Assistant Professor: 1455 Nos.
(Tentative vacancies)
Qualification Required: For
qualification norms according to
subject wise, visit the officially
released advertisement (Link
given below)
Distribution of vacancies
according to Subject wise—
ASSISTANT PROFESSOR IN
GENERAL DEGREE COLLEGES
1. Anthropology: 1 Nos.
2. Arabic: 1 Nos.
3. Bengali: 71 Nos.
4. Botany: 38 Nos.
5. Chemistry: 113 Nos.
6. Commerce: 47 Nos.
7. Computer Science: 13 Nos.
8. Defence Studies: 3 Nos.
9. Economics: 78 Nos.
10. Education: 46 Nos.
11. Electronic Science: 5 Nos.
12. English: 195 Nos.
13. Environmental Science: 1 Nos.
14 (A). History of Art (Fine Arts):
2 Nos. ;
14 (B). Graphics (Fine Arts): 2
Nos.
15. Film Studies: 1 Nos.
16. Food & Nutrition: 9 Nos.
17. Geography: 43 Nos.
18. Geology: 2 Nos.
19. Hindi: 6 Nos.
20. History: 71 Nos.
21. Journalism: 2 Nos.
22. Law: 3 Nos.
23. Mathematics: 143 Nos.
24. Microbiology: 2 Nos.
25. Molecular Biology: 3 Nos.
26. Music: 3 Nos.
27. Nepali: 2 Nos.
28. Philosophy: 70 Nos.
29. Physical Education: 6 Nos.
30. Physics: 142 Nos.
31. Physiology: 11 Nos.
32. Plant Protection: 1 Nos.
33. Political Science: 148 Nos.
34. Psychology: 8 Nos.
35. Sanskrit: 56 Nos.
36. Santhali: 3 Nos.
37. Sociology: 13 Nos.
38. Statistics: 12 Nos.
39. Tibetan: 1 Nos.
40. Urdu: 6 Nos.
41. Women’s Studies: 1 Nos.
42. Zoology: 51 Nos.
ASSISTANT PROFESSORS IN
B.ED/ B.ED DEPARTMENT OF
COLLEGES
1. Education: 3 Nos
2. English: 3 Nos.
3. Geography: 3 Nos.
4. History: 2 Nos.
5. Mathematics: 2 Nos.
6. Physical Education: 1 Nos.
7. Psychology: 1 Nos.
8. Life Science: 4 Nos.
9. Physical Science: 1 Nos.
Name of the Post: LIBRARIAN
No. of Vacancies: 91 Nos. (Gen—
76; SC—14; ST—1)
Qualification Required: —
(i) Master’s Degree in Library
Science/Information Science/
Documentation Science or an
equivalent professional degree
with at least 55% marks (or an
equivalent grade) with knowledge
of computerization of library.
(ii) Candidates must have
qualified in Library Science at
the National Eligibility Test
conducted by the UGC or any
other test like SET/SLET
accredited by the UGC for the
purpose of recruitment in West
Bengal. (Not applicable for
candidates who have been
awarded Ph.D. degree in
accordance with the UGC).
Age Limits (For all posts): within
37yrs as on 01-01-2013. Upper
age relaxation for OBC—3yrs;
SC/ST—5yrs; PH—10yrs and
others—as per Govt. norms.
Pay scale: Pay Band –
Rs.15,600-39,100/- plus
Academic Grade Pay of
Rs.6000/-
Application fee: Eligible
candidates willing to apply for
the post have to pay Rs.1050/-
(Rs.550 in case of SC/ST/PH/
VH/OBC candidates)
Candidates should print-out the
Fee Payment Challan from the
website for paying Application
fee through any branches of
United Bank of India.
Candidates will have to wait for
at least two working days (after
uploading scan copy of passport
size photograph and signature
successfully) before the bank
accepts fee payment. Payment
will be accepted in any branch of
United Bank of India in India
only after a lag of at least two
working days.
How to Apply: Candidates may
apply online through the
following link —
www.examinationonline.in/
wbcscportal.
During making application,
candidates will have to upload
scan copy of their passport size
photograph and signature (Refer
the Advt. for details)
After final submission of Online
application form; system will
generate a Registration Slip with
unique Registration Numbers.
Candidates should take a print
out of the Registration Slip and
then send the printout, along
with self-attested photocopies of
all relevant documents pertaining
to the eligibility, qualification,
experience, research &
publication etc. to the
Commission’s office (Address
given below)
The certificates/documents will
be verified during the interview.
Last Date of Application:—
Online Application Form can be
submitted on or before 21st
January 2013.
The print-out Registration Slip
must reach on or before 6th
February 2013 at the following
address – “The West Bengal
College Service Commission, 6,
Bhawani Dutta Lane, 4th Floor,
Kolkata- 700 073”.
Candidates are requested to go
through the officially released
Advertisement for complete
details. For detailed Advt. and
Application form, please visit the
following link — http://
www.wbcsc.ac.in /. For Online
application form - http://
www.examinationonline.in/
wbcscportal/

North Bengal Medical College and Hospital is inviting application for different posts: -

North Bengal Medical College &
Hospital is inviting application
form for the posts of –
Programme Officer, Psychiatric
Nurse, Social Worker, Record
Keeper, Programme Manager
and Programme Assistant in
District Mental Health
Programme, Jalpaiguri on
contractual basis. Qualification
norms and details are given
below—
NORTH BENGAL MEDICAL
COLLEGE & HOSPITAL
REQUIRES PROGRAMME
OFFICER, PSYCHIATRIC
NURSE, SOCIAL WORKER,
RECORD KEEPER,
PROGRAMME MANAGER AND
PROGRAMME ASSISTANT IN
DISTRICT MENTAL HEALTH
PROGRAMME, JALPAIGURI
ON CONTRACTUAL BASIS.
LAST DATE OF
APPLICATION: 28/01/2013. AS
PER MEMO NO. DMHP/
JAL/425
1. Programme Officer: 1 Nos.
Qualification: A qualified
psychiatrist, i.e. MBBS with MD/
DNB Psychiatry/ DPM OR
equivalent P.G. qualification OR
trained medical officers
Consolidated Pay: Rs.50000 for
psychiatrist and Rs.30000 in
case of trained medical officer.
2. Psychiatric Social Worker/
Social Worker: 1 Nos.
Qualification: M.Phil in BSW OR
MSW with 3 months training in
PSW in
NIMHANS.CIP.LGBRIMH-
Tezpur or identified institutions.
Consolidated Pay: Rs.30000 for
Psychiatric Social Worker (MPhil
PSW) and Rs. 18000 in case of
trained medical social worker.
3. Clinical Psychologist/
Psychologist: 1 Nos.
Qualification: M.Phil in clinical
psychology OR MA/MSC in
Psychology/ Clinical Psychology
with 3 months training in clinical
Psychology in NIMHANS, CIP,
LGBRIMH- Tezpur or other
identified institution.
Consolidated Pay: Rs.30000 for
Clinical psychologist (M.Phil
cl.Psychology) and Rs.18000 in
case of trained psychologist
(MA- Psychology)
4. Psychiatric Nurse: 1 Nos.
Qualification: General Nursing
plus Diploma in Psychiatric
Nursing OR General Nurse with
1 month training in Psychiatric
Nursing in NIMHANS, CIP,
LGBRIMH – Tezpur or identified
institution.
Consolidated Pay: Rs.25000/-
for Psychiatric Nurse (M.Sc
Psych. Nursing or DPN) and
Rs.15000/- in case of General
Nurse.
5. Record Keeper: 1 Nos.
Qualification: Graduate with
experience in health sector.
Consolidated Pay: Rs.10000/-
(Graduate) with suitable
experience.
6. Programme Manager: 1 Nos.
Qualification: MPH/ MBA-HCA/
Master of Health Administration
OR Graduate with public health
certificate e.g. P.G diploma in
Health care administration etc.
Consolidated Pay: Rs.25000/-
(Graduate with public health
background)
7. Programme Assistant: 1 Nos.
Qualification: 12th Pass with
proficiency in Computer and
general office work.
Consolidated Pay: Rs.8000/-
How to Apply: Interested and
eligible candidates may prepare
their complete Bio-data on plain
paper and the along with
enclosures in support of
qualification and eligibility, should
send it by Registered Post/
Speed Post at the following
address – “The H.O.D. Deptt. Of
Psychiatry, North Bengal
Medical College & Hospital,
Sushruta Nagar, Darjeeling, PIN
– 734 012”.
Last Date of Application:
Application must reach the
above address on or before –
28th January 2013 (by 1.30PM).

Improve your English vocabulary: Synonyms

Know your English vocabulary:

Word         Synonym    Synonym

1.abandon  -discard ,vacate

2.accord- agree ,grant

3.adversity - difficulty ,misfortune

4. affluent-  plentiful ,rich

4. aggravate - annoy ,infuriate

5. alleviate-  lighten, mitigate

6. amenable - agreeable ,favorable

7. anguish - distress, sorrow

8. apathetic-  dispirited ,lifeless

9. arrogant-  disdainful ,imperious

10.astonish- confound ,overwhelm

11. atrocious- appalling, detestable

12. augment- add, enlarge

13. avoid-  ignore, shun

14. awkward- graceless ,inept

15.baffle- confuse,  deceive

16.banal-  common, plain

17.barren-  desolate, sterile

18.berate-  criticize, disapprove

19.betray- deceive ,fool

20.bias -inclination, predisposition

21.bitter-  acrid, sour

22.blend-  combine, mix

23.bliss- happiness, joy

24.bluff- boast, feign

25.bold-  daring, fearless

26.bonus-  award, gift

27.bother-  annoy, irritate

28.brief - concise, short

29.brilliant-  clever , intelligent

30.brisk-  fast, swift

31.budget-  allot, plan

32.candid-  honest, truthful

33.caricature- cartoon, imitation

34.casual- informal, natural

35.category- classification, division

36.cease - desist, stop

37.chaotic-  disordered, messy

38.cherish - esteem, love

39.circumvent-  avoid, go around

40.commemorate-celebrate,honor

41.compensate-balance,recompense

42.competent- able, capable

43.conceive-  design, plan

44.confirmation-acknowledgement, proof

45.contradict-  deny, oppose

46.contribution-  donation, grant

47.courteous - polite, well-mannered

48.craving - desire, longing

49.credulous - confident, trustful

50.damp-  moist, wet

51.dare -challenge, defy

52.decay -decline ,rot

53.decent -honorable ,pure

54.dense -filled ,packed

55.designate -name ,select

56.detain- hold ,keep

57.disclose -announce ,reveal

58.dogma -belief ,view

59.durable -constant ,lasting

60.dwindle- abate ,diminish

61.eager -earnest, keen

62.eccentric- abnormal, idiosyncratic

63.elaborate -embellish, enhance

64.emanate- arise ,radiate

65.embezzle- purloin ,steal

66.eminent -distinguished, prominent

67.encourage- foster, induce

68.endure- last ,persist

69.essential -cultured ,learned

70.essential- basic ,necessary

71.estimate -guess ,predict

72.evaluate- appraise, judge

73.exhaust- deplete, empty

74.exhilarated -cheerful ,zestful

75.explicit- definite ,specific

76.fastidious- exacting ,particular

77.federation -alliance ,band

78.feeble -helpless ,infirm

79.fervor- intensity ,passion

80.feud- argument ,dispute

81.filth- dirt, squalor

82.flatter- compliment ,praise

83.fleet -nimble ,swift

84.frivolous- inconsequential, trivial

86.frugal- prudent ,saving

86.furious -angry ,outraged

87.generous- benevolent ,unselfish

88.genuine -actual ,real

89.glare- gleam, glisten

90.gloomy -cheerless ,dim

91.goad -provoke ,badger

92.grasp -grab ,hold

93.greed -avarice ,longing

94.guarantee- assure ,pledge

95.guile- cunning ,deceit

96.gullible -credulous, unsuspicious

97.habitual -accustomed, regular

98.handicap -disability, disadvantage

99.harass -annoy ,disturb

100.harmless- innocuous, inoffensive

101.harsh -hard ,coarse

102.hasty -abrupt ,hurried

103.haughty -arrogant ,pretentious

104.humiliate- humble ,shame

105.hygiene -cleanliness, sanitation

106.hypocrisy- duplicity ,falseness

107.ideal -goal ,perfection

108.idle- lazy ,unoccupied

109.ignorant -stupid ,unintelligent

110.illogical -incongruent, rambling

111.illustrious -eminent, famous

112.imitate -copy ,reflect

113.immense- huge ,mammoth

114.impartial -candid ,impersonal

115.impatient -anxious ,eager

116.implicate -accuse ,insinuate

117.importune- beg ,solicit

118.inadvertent -accidental ,
unintentional

119.indifferent -apathetic, disinterested

120.isolate -detach ,quarantine

121.jargon -argot ,slang

122.jovial- genial ,merry

123.judge- estimate ,referee

124.justification -excuse ,reason

125.juvenile -adolescent ,immature

126.keen -clever ,observant

127.label -brand ,classify

128.labor -toil ,work

129.lead -direct ,proceed

130.lean- slim ,thin

131.leave -abandon ,desert

132.liberal -copious ,unrestrained

133.liberal -lenient ,open-minded

134.limitation -boundary, constraint

135.lucid -clear ,understandable

136.lucky -auspicious, fortunate

137.mad- furious, irate

138.manage -administer ,control

139.manipulate -control ,shape

140.marginal -borderline ,limited

141.match -agree ,correspond

142.maze -complexity, labyrinth

143.meditate -ponder ,think

144.memorial -commemoration ,
monument

145.mention -allude, refer to

146.merge -blend ,fuse

147.narrow -confined ,restricted

148.nature -aspect ,character

149.necessary -mandatory, requisite

150.negate -contradict ,refute

151.negligent -careless ,remiss

152.negotiate- bargain ,deal

153.nice -affable ,benign

154.noble- aristocratic, distinguished

155.novice -beginner, nonprofessional

156.nuisance -annoyance ,offense

157.obedient -faithful, loyal

158.objection -disapproval ,protest

159.obligatory -compulsory, required

160.observe- notice, watch

161.obvious -conspicuous ,definite

162.offend -anger ,irritate

163.offer -bid ,proposal

164.omen -premonition ,sign

165.omit -exclude ,remove

166.opportune -advantageous ,
auspicious

167.pacify -appease ,placate

168.pain -ache ,discomfort

169.paramount -chief ,leading

170.partisan -biased, dogmatic

171.passive -inactive, lethargic

172.pause -break ,cease

173.permeate- diffuse ,disseminate

174.perpetuate -endure ,preserve

175.perplex -astonish, baffle

176.persecute -afflict ,harass

177.radiate -effuse, emanate

178.radical -basic ,fundamental

179.range- anger ,furor

180.rank -arrange ,classify

181.realize -accomplish ,fulfill

182.recalcitrant- obstinate, stubborn

183.receptacle -container, repository

184.reconcile -atone ,conciliate

185.regret- deplore, grieve

186.reliable -dependable, trustworthy

187.sanction -approval ,permit

188.scope -aim ,extent

189.section -division ,portion

190.settle -adjust ,compromise

191.shallow -superficial ,trivial

192.shrewd -careful ,calculating

193.significant- distinctive, important

194.slight -delicate ,slender

195.spontaneous- impromptu ,
unplanned

196.spread -announce ,broadcast

197.stabilize -balance ,steady

198.tame -domesticate ,subdue

199.tangle -intertwine ,twist

200.temper -mood ,nature

201.tendency- inclination ,trend

202.term- cycle, duration

203.thrift -conservation ,prudence

204.tough -aggressive ,unyielding

205.transfer -convey ,exchange

206.tumult -agitation ,commotion

207.turbulent -disordered, violent

208.vain- boastful ,inflated

209.valid -authorized ,legitimate

210.variety- assortment ,diversify

211.verify -authenticate, substantiate

22000 Constables and Riflemen in CRPF, ITDP,BSF and CISF!!

STAFF SELECTION
COMMISSION (SSC)
RECRUITES 22000
CONSTABLE (GENERAL DUTY)
AND RIFLEMAN (GENERAL
DUTY) IN ITBPF, CISF, BSF,
CRPF, SSB AND ASSAM
RIFLES.
No. of vacancies varies from
State to State (State wise
vacancies). Below given are total
vacancies according to Force
wise —
FOR MALE CANDIDATES
ASSAM RIFLES—
Males: 1657 Nos. (Gen—864;
OBC—322; SC—218; ST—253)
Females: 192 Nos. (Gen—101;
OBC—35; SC—25; ST—31)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 416 Nos. (Gen—217;
OBC—19; SC—19; ST—4)
BORDER SECURITY FORCE
(BSF)
Males: 3245 Nos. (Gen—1689;
OBC—746; SC—503; ST—307)
Females: 800 Nos. (Gen—419;
OBC—184; SC—124; ST—73)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 48 Nos. (Gen—26;
OBC—3; ST—19)
CENTRAL INDUSTRIAL
SECURITY FORCE (CISF)
Males: 900 Nos. (Gen—455;
OBC—243; SC—135; ST—67)
Females: 100 Nos. (Gen—51;
OBC—27; SC—15; ST—7)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 811 Nos. (Gen—410;
OBC—169; SC—156; ST—76)
CENTRAL RESERVE POLICE
FORCE (CRPF)
Males: 10793 Nos. (Gen—4943;
OBC—2500; SC—2247; ST—
1103)
Females: 854 Nos. (Gen—100;
OBC—439; SC—192; ST—140)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 200 Nos. (Gen—100;
OBC—42; SC—39; ST—19)
INDO TIBETAN BORDER
POLICE FORCE (ITBPF)
Males: 168 Nos. (Gen—86; OBC
—40; SC—26; ST—16)
Females: 662 Nos. (Gen—343;
OBC—152; SC—152; ST—104)
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 42 Nos. (Gen—27;
OBC—5; SC—6; ST—4)
SASHASTRA SEEMA BAL (SSB)
Males: 765 Nos. (Gen—398; OBC
—173; SC—115; ST—79)
Females: Nil
Constable/GD (Male/ Female) in
B.G. Districts of different States
of CAPF: 166 Nos. (Gen—100;
OBC—20; SC—22; ST—24)
Vacancies were available State
wise. For detailed State wise
vacancies, please refer the
Advertisement.
Vacancies according to State –
West Bengal is given below—
STATE: WEST BENGAL ; POST:
CONSTABLE (GENERAL DUTY)
1. ASSAM RIFLES: Male—97
Nos.; Female—11 nos;
2. BSF: Male— 224 Nos.; Female
—58 Nos.
3. CISF: Male—62 Nos.; Female
—7 Nos.; BG Districts—443 Nos.
4. CRPF: 749 Nos.; Female—58
Nos.; BG Districts—109 Nos.
5. ITBP: 12 Nos.; Female—47
Nos.
6. SSB: 53 Nos.; Female – Nil.
Qualification Required:
Matriculation (Class 10 pass) pass
candidates may apply for the
post.
Physical Standards:
a) Height: For Males : 170 cms;
For Females : 157 cms.
b) Chest: For males only –
Unexpanded : 80 cms. -
Expanded : Min 85 cms.
c) Weight: Proportional to height
and age as per medical standard.
Cut-off in Height and Chest for
reserved and Hilly area
candidates/ tribals is as per Govt.
norms (Refer the Advt.)
Pay scale: Rs.5200—20200 and
Grade pay: Rs.2000/-
Age Limits: between 18yrs to
23yrs as on 01-01-2013. Upper
age relaxation is as per norms.
Application fee: Rs.50/- only
through fee challan deposition
from any branch of State Bank
of India or Net banking (In case
of Offline application; through
Central Recruitment Fee Stamp/
CRFS).
Women candidates/ SC/ ST/ PH
candidates were exempted from
Application fee.
How to Apply: Apply Online or
Offline.
For Online application form, visit
the official website of SSC —
http://ssconline.nic.in .
For Offline application form;
candidates may download the
Application Form from above
website.
The recruitment will comprise of
Physical Standards Test (PST),
Physical Efficiency Test (PET),
Written Examination and Medical
Examination.
Last Date of Application—
Online Application form can be
submitted from dated 15th
December to 11th January 2013.
(18th January 2013 in case of
candidates applying offline from
far flung areas/ States)
Written Examination will be on
12-05-2013.
Before applying for the posts;
please go through the officially
released Advertisement. For
detailed Advt. and Application
form, please visit the following
link — http://ssconline.nic.in/

Tips for solving multiple choice questions in competitive examination!

The entrance exams mode requires
a drastic change in strategy and
orientation for students compared
to the board exams. Most of them
are objective type. This needs a
little bit of reorientation in the test
taking approach. Cracking entrance
exams is all about dedicated
practice on test types that are
relevant, followed by revision tests
and feedback. You may follow some
tips that will put you in good stead,
no matter which entrance exam
you are appearing for.
Start thinking about a strategy.
You need to play to your
strengths.
You need to learn to skip
questions.
You have to identify the areas
you are not so comfortable with.
It is advisable to experiment in
your practice tests.
Learn to master multiple choice
questions.
Multiple choice questions (MCQs)
are very different from subjective
questions. They provide for a lot of
intelligent guesswork. So one needs
to consciously ask while analysing
tests, "Is there a way to answer this
question using the choices?"
Time management holds the key
in all entrance exams.
The core value of effective time
management is focusing on the
right things.
Remember the '80:20 Rule'.
Usually 80 per cent of unfocussed
efforts generate merely 20 per
cent of results meaning the rest of
the 80 per cent results are attained
with 20 per cent efforts only.
Focus and effective time
management can be critical for
your final score.
Revise all the fundamental
concepts and identify and attempt
as many types of questions as
possible in a given topic.
Analyse the marking pattern for
the exams that you're appearing
for.
Negative marking means you
must select questions you think
you can answer, with care. If the
paper does not have any negative
marking, try and answer all
questions, even if you're not sure
of the answer.
Maintain your cool while taking the
test. Remember there are many
questions that you can attempt. Do
not get stuck at questions that take
inordinately long time. The best
attempts are made by those who
manage to read through the entire
paper. You can do that only if you
master the art of test taking. All
the Best!

Life Insurance Corporation of India requires 12529 Direct sales executive (DSE)

Life
Insurance Corporation of India
(LIC of India) is recruiting
12529 Direct Sales Executives
(DSE) for various offices of the
corporation. The engagement will
be on contractual basis for 3yrs
under the jurisdiction of Central/
East Central / East Zone/ North
Central/ Northern Zone/ South
Central/ Southern/ Western Zonal
Office. Eligible candidates may
apply online. Qualification
requirement and brief
information is given below –
LIFE INSURANCE CORPORATION
OF INDIA (LICI) REQUIRES 12529
DIRECT SALES EXECUTIVES (DSE)
UNDER JURISDICTION OF
DIFFERENT ZONAL OFFICE. LAST
DATE: 28/12/2012.
ZONAL WISE VACANCIES GIVEN
BELOW —
1. No. of vacancies in Central
Zonal Offices: 877 Nos.
— Bhopal: 87 Nos.
— Bilaspur: 116 Nos.
— Gwalior: 111 Nos.
— Indore: 88 Nos.
— Jabalpur: 116 Nos.
— Raipur: 120 Nos.
— Satna: 110 Nos.
— Shahdol: 129 Nos.
2. No. of Vacancies in Central
Zonal Offices: 1312 Nos.
— Patna 1: 123 Nos.
— Patna 2: 112 Nos.
— Bhagalpur: 34 Nos
— Begusarai: 121 Nos.
— Muzzafarpur: 123 Nos.
— Jamshedpur: 107 Nos.
— Hazaribagh: 97 Nos.
— Bhubaneswar: 100 Nos.
— Cuttack: 108 Nos.
— Berhampur: 134 Nos.
— Sambalpur: 142 Nos.
3. No. of Vacancies in Eastern
Zonal Offices: 721 Nos.
— Asansol: 55 Nos.
— Bardhaman: 40 Nos.
— Bongaigaon: 50 Nos.
— Guwahati: 50 Nos.
— Jorhat: 60 Nos.
— Kharagpur: 40 Nos.
— KMDO-I: 87 Nos.
— KMDO-II: 115 Nos.
— KSDO: 99 Nos.
— Silchar: 75 Nos
— Jalpaiguri: 50 Nos.
4. No. of vacancies in North
Central Zonal Offices: 1537
Nos.
— Agra: 104 Nos.
— SO Dibiyapur: 12 Nos.
— SO Etawah: 12 Nos.
— Aligarh: 80 Nos.
— Allahabad: 132 Nos.
— SO Khaga: 12 Nos
— SO Pratapgarh: 12 Nos.
— Bareilly: 123 Nos.
— Shahjahanpur: 12 Nos.
— SO Hardoi: 12 Nos.
— Dehradun: 54 Nos.
— BO-1 Hardwar: 12 Nos.
— BO-2 Roorkee: 12 Nos.
— Faizabad: 86 Nos.
— BO-1 Saharanpur: 12 Nos.
— BO Raibereli: 12 Nos.
— BO Barabanki: 12 Nos.
— Gorakhpur: 87 Nos.
— CAB Azamgarh: 12 Nos.
— CAB Gorakhpur: 12 Nos.
— Haldwani: 91 Nos.
— Rudrapur: 12 Nos
— Kashipur: 12 Nos.
— Kanpur: 87 Nos.
— SO Gwaltoli: 12 Nos.
— SO Panki: 12 Nos.
— CAB Jhansi: 12 Nos.
— Lucknow: 98 Nos.
— SO B&AC Sitapur: 12 Nos.
— SO Chinhat: 12 Nos.
— Meerut: 114 Nos.
— CAB Moradabad: 12 Nos.
— Noida: 119 Nos.
— Varanasi: 86 Nos.
— Mirzapur: 12 Nos.
— Shakthi Nagar: 12 Nos.
5. No. of Vacancies in South
Central Zonal Offices: 1486
Nos.
— Bangalore 1: 239 Nos.
— Bangalore 2 : 266 Nos.
— Belgaum: 135 Nos.
— Gulbarga: 129 Nos.
— Warangal: 231 Nos.
— Mangalore: 253 Nos.
— Vijaywada: 96 Nos.
6. No. of Vacancies in Southern
Zonal Offices: 1815 Nos.
— Chennai 1: 152 Nos.
— Chennai 2: 278 Nos.
— Coimbatore: 73 Nos.
— Madurai: 77 Nos.
— Salem: 79 Nos.
— Tirunelveli: 236 Nos.
— Trichy: 262 Nos.
— Vellore: 158 Nos.
— Ernakulam: 129 Nos.
— Kottayam: 70 Nos.
— Kozhikode: 86 Nos.
— Thiruvananthapuram: 98 Nos.
— Thrissur: 97 Nos.
7. No. of vacancies in Western
Zonal Office: 2378 Nos.
— Ahmedabad: 120 Nos.
— Amravati: 119 Nos.
— Aurangabad: 72 Nos.
— Bhavnagar: 120 Nos.
— Gandhinagar: 79 Nos.
— Goa: 150 Nos.
— Kolhapur: 128 Nos.
— Mumbai – I: 123 Nos.
— Mumbai – II: 130 Nos.
— Nadiad: 111 Nos.
— Nagpur: 123 Nos.
— Nanded: 125 Nos.
— Nashik: 132 Nos.
— Pune – I: 114 Nos.
— Pune – 2: 135 Nos.
— Rajkot: 114 Nos.
— Satara: 130 Nos.
— Surat: 114 Nos.
— Thane: 130 Nos.
— Vadodara: 109 Nos.
8. No. of Vacancies in LIC
Northern Zonal Offices: 2403
Nos.
— Delhi – I: 113 Nos.
— Delhi – II: 110 Nos.
— Delhi – III: 126 Nos.
— Delhi – II: 140 Nos.
— Delhi – III: 130 Nos.
— Chandigarh: 129 Nos.
— Chandigarh: 115 Nos.
— Jaipur – I: 82 Nos.
— Ludhiyana: 125 Nos.
— Jalandhar: 99 Nos.
— Jodhpur: 95 Nos.
— Ajmer: 108 Nos.
— Karnal: 128 Nos.
— Udaipur: 121 Nos.
— Srinagar: 138 Nos.
— Amritsar: 121 Nos.
— Shimla: 73 Nos.
— Rohtak: 150 Nos.
— Jaipur – II: 150 Nos.
— Bikaner: 150 Nos.
Qualification Required: Bachelor
degree. Preference may be given
to those applicants who possess a
Bachelor Degree or Diploma in
Marketing /Management.
Knowledge in English and fluency
in Regional/ local language is
desirable. Knowledge in computer
application such as MS Word/
Excel/ Etc will be taken as
additional advantage.
Age Limits: between 21yrs to
35yrs as on 01/12/2012. Upper
age relaxation is as per norms.
Selection of the candidates will be
through Written Examination
followed by an Interview. Actual
date and venue of Written
Examination and Interview will be
intimated in due course.
Application fee: Rs.100/- is to be
paid in cash through cash counter
of any Branch office of Life
Insurance Corporation of India
under Account Code – 114034.
SC/ST candidates are not
require to deposit Application
fee.
How to Apply: Interested
candidates may apply Online from
the official website of LIC —
http://www.licindia.in/
careers.htm
On successful acceptance of
online application form, a unique
Registration number and
Password is generated and
displayed to the candidate. The
candidate is given the option to
print the application form after
completing the application to
keep for his/her reference. The
candidate can also reprint the
application subsequently till the
last date for application by
providing (i) Registration
Number and (ii) Password.
For detailed Advt. and Application
form, please visit the following
link — http://www.licindia.in/
careers_pop0002.htm

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Child psychology and pedagogy objective questions with answers

Child development and psychology:  Sample solved objective questions

Set-1

1. The most difficult age for the
development of a child is -
(a) Early childhood
(b) Teen age
(c) Young age
(d) Adult age

2. Heredity and atmosphere are
correlate
(a) Companions
(b) Dependent
(c) Elders
(d) All of these

3. Which of the following factors
comes in the way of girls' personal
rights?
(a) Social Recognition
(b) Family
(c) Gender Difference
(d) All of these

4. Which of the following is not an
accepted stage in Kohlberg's
Theory of Moral Development?
(a) Interpersonal relations
(b) Individualism
(c) Social contract and social rights
(d) Universal principles

5. Which of the following is not
considered a factor of cognition?
(a) Fear
(b) Retreat
(c) Anger
(d) Hunger

6. An ideal teacher should
concentrate
(a) On teaching methods
(b) On the subject being taught
(c) On students and their
behaviours
(d) On all of these

7. The motif of the concept of
curricular flexibility is to benefit
(a) Disabled students
(b) Minority students
(c) Reserved castes
(d) All of these

8. Which of the following is not
considered a tool for formative
assessment
(a) Oral questions
(b) MCQ
(c) Assignments
(d) Projects

9. What do you understand by the
term Peer Group ?
(a) People of same profession
(b) Friends and acquaintances
(c) Family members and relatives
(d) All of these

10. A problem child has
(a) Pampering guardians
(b) Hereditary problems
(c) IQ problems
(d) Physical problems

Answers of WB TET child
development and pedagogy
model questions
1. (b), 2. (d), 3. (d), 4. (c), 5. (b),
6. (d), 7. (a), 8. (b), 9. (d), 10. (a).

Set-2

1. Absenteeism can be tackled
by :
(1) teaching (2) punishing the
students (3) giving the sweets (4)
contacting the parents

2. Discipline means: (1) strict-
behaviour (2) severe punishment
(3) obedience (4) going by the
rules

3. If any girl child does not corne
to school regularly you will
(1) no bother (2) struck off her
name (3) complain to the
Principal (4) meet the parents and
en-
courage them .

4. In co-education you want't to :
(1) make separate rows of boys
and girls (2) you give preference
to boys over girls
(3) you. give preference to none
(4) you deal according to need

5. One of the basic priniclples of
socializing Individuals is :
(1) religion (2)
caste (3) educational (4) imitation

Directions (6-10) :
Which of the' skills do you
consider most essential for a
teacher?

6. (1) Oration skills
(2) Listening skills (3) Managerial
skills, (4) Teaching skills

7. (1) encourage children to
search for knowledge
(2) have all the information for
the children
(3) ability to make children
memorize materials
(4) enable children to do well in
tests

8. (1) identify gifted children (2)
have an understanding of all
children abilities (3) identify
children with learning
disabilities (4) none of the above

9. (1) _ ability to help children un­
derstand texts thoroughly (2)
ability to help children do all the
exercises
(3) ability to raise possible ac­
tions from the texts
(4) ability to help children from
their own opinions on the text

10. (1) to communicate well
{2) to use difficult language
(3) to impress students
(4) to read out the textbook

11. Success in developing values
is mainly dependent upon:
(1) government (2) society  (3)
family (4) teacher

12. Good reading aims at develop­
ing:
(l) understanding (2)
pronunciation (3) sensitivity (4)
increasing factual knowledge

13. The primary duty of a teacher
is to be responsible to his/her:
(1) family (2) students  (3)
society  (4) nation

14. Which of the following is not
related to educational achieve­
ment?
(1) Heredity (2) Experiences (3)
Practice (4) Self learning

15. One of,the students of a class
hardly talks in the class. How
would you encourage him to
express himself?
(1) By orgariising discussions (2)
By encouraging children to take
part in classroom activities
(3) By organizing educational
games/ programmes in which -
children feel like speaking-
(4) By giving good marks to those
who express them'selves well

Answers: 1.4, 2. 4, 3. 4, 4. 4, 5.
3, 5. 4, 7. 1, 8. 2, 9. 4, 10. 1,
11. 3, 12. 1, 13. 2, 14. 1, 15. 3

Set-3 

1. The stage in which a child be­
gins to think logically about
objects and events is known as-
(1) sensory-motor stage (2)
formal operational stage (3) pre-
operational stage (4) concrete
operational stage

2. Four distinct stages of chil­
dren's intellectual development
were identified by-
(1) Kohlberg (2) Erikson (3)
Skinner  (4) Piaget

3. Parents should play
a .............. role in the learning
process of young children.
(1) negative (2) proactive (3)
sympathetic (4) neutral

4. Which is the place where the
child's cognitive development is
defined in the best way?
(1) Playground (2) School and
classroom (3) Auditorium (4)
Home

5. ...is considered a sign of
motivated teaching.
(1) Maximum attendance in class
(2) Remedial work given by the
teacher
(3) Questioning by students
(4) Pin drop silence in the class

6. At lower classes play-way
method of teaching is based on-
(1) theory of physical education
programmes
(2) principles of methods of
teaching
(3) psychological principles of
development and growth
(4) sociological principles of
teaching

7. Dyslexia is associated with
(1) mental disorder (2)
mathematical disorder (3) reading
disorder (4) behavioural disorder

8. Education of children with
special needs should be provided
(1) along with other normal
children (2) by methods
developed for special children ,in
special schools (3) in special
school (4) by special teachers in
special schools

9. In the process of learning,
motivation-
(1) sharpens the memory of
learners (2) differentiates new
learning from old learning (3)
makes learners
think unidirectionally (4) creates
interest for learning among new
learners.

10. A student of grade 5 with
visual deficiency should be-
(1) excused to do a lower level of
work
(2) helped with his/her routine
work by parents and friends
(3) treated normally in the
classroom and provided support
through audio CDs.
(4) given special treatment in the
classroom

Answer key: 1. 3, 2. 4, 3. 3, 4. 2,
5. 2, 6. 3, 7. 3, 8. 1, 9. 4, 10. 3

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Environmental science multiple choice questions/answers (Set-2)

Environmental science multiple choice question /answers:

1. Identify the correct
chronological sequence (oldest to
youngest) in the order of their
formation:
A. Pacific ocean > Atlantic Ocean >
Mediterranean Sea > Indian Ocean
B. Pacific ocean > Atlantic Ocean >
Indian Ocean > Mediterranean Sea
C. Atlantic ocean > Pacific Ocean >
Indian Ocean > Mediterranean Sea
D. Atlantic ocean > Pacific Ocean >
Mediterranean Sea > Indian Ocean
2. Movement of individual rock
masses along structural planes such
as bedding, joints and faults on a
slope is known as:
A. debris slide
B. slump
C. rock slide
D. soil creep
3. Make list I and list II and select
the correct answer using codes
given below the lists:
List I List II
(a) Mid oceanic ridge (i) Alkali rich
basalt
(b) Rift valley (ii) Potash poor
basalt
(c) Island arc (iii) Andesite
(d) Continent (iv) Plateau basalt
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
B. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
4. Consider the following about the
Himalayan orogeny:
(a) The orogeny resulted from the
southward movement
(b) The orogeny began about 25
million years ago
(c) The orogeny closed about 1
million years ago
(d) The Himalayas have a root of
relatively light crustal rocks
projecting into the denser mantle.
Which of the following
combinations is correct?
A (a) and (b)
B. (c) and (d)
C. (a) and (c)
D. (b) and (d)
5. A seismogram records the
following types of earthquake
waves.
(a) L - waves
(b) P - waves
(c) S - waves
The correct chronological sequence
of the arrival of these waves is :
A. (b), (c) and (a)
B. (b), (a) and (c)
C. (c), (a) and (b)
D. (a), (b) and (c) arrive at the
same time
6. Which one of the following
statement is true of braided
streams?
A Width of the channel is less than
its depth
B. Width and depth of the channel
are equal
C. Width of the channel is greater
than its depth
D. Width of the channel is
unrelated to its depth
7. In which of the following
frequency ranges the human ear is
most sensitive to noise:
A. 1 - 2 KHz
B. 100 - 500 Hz
C. 10 - 12 KHz
D. 13 - 16 KHz
9. Assertion (A): Aerosols have
potential for modifying the climate.
Reason (R): Aerosols interact with
both short wave and infra - red
radiations.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A).
C. (A) is true and (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true
10. Which of the following grows
rapidly resulting in the shrinkage of
water bodies?
A. Phytoplankton
B. Zooplankton
C. Algae
D. Macrophytes
11. Which species of chromium is
toxic in water?
A .Cr+ 2
B. Cr+ 3
C. Cr+6
D. Cr°
12. Chemical compounds having
same crystal structure are called:
A. Polymorphic
B. Pseudomorphic
C. Isomorphic
D. None of the above
13. Micas having an atomic
structure defined as continuous
sheets of tetrahedrons, sharing 3-
oxygen atoms, are called:
A. Inosilicate
B. Phyllosilicate
C. Tectosilicate
D. Sorosilicate
15. If the population growth
follows a logistic curve, the
maximum sustainable yield:
A. is equal to half the carrying
capacity
B. is equal to the carrying capacity
C. depends on growth rate
D. depends on the initial
population
16. Fluidized - bed combustion of
coal is an efficient method of
controlling which of the following
air pollutants:
A. CO
B. SPM and NOx
C. NOx and SOx
D. CO, SPM and SOx
17. The plume rise in a coal based
thermal power plant depends on:
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Atmospheric stability
(c) Momentum of exhaust gases
Identify the correct combination
A. (a) and (b) only
B. (b) and (c) only
C. (a) and (c) only
D. (a), (b) and (c)
18. The efficiency of a solar flat
plate collector depends on:
(a) Thermal efficiency
(b) Optical efficiency
(c) Solar flux
Identify the correct combination
A. (a), (b) and (c)
B. (a) and (b) only
C. (b) and (c) only
D. (a) and (c) only
19. An increase of 10 ppm in the
concentration of CO, in atmosphere
represents approximately an
addition of carbon of amount:
A. 1.2 Kilotons
B. 2.12 Megatons
C. 21.2 Geiga tons
D. 2120 tons
20. Winds blowing down an incline
often due to cold air drainage are
called:
A. Anabatic winds
B. Mountain winds
C. Cyclonic winds
D. Katabatic winds
21. Mixing height is:
A. the height of ground based
inversion
B. the height at which geostrophic
balance occurs
C. the height of constant solar flux
layer
D. the height upto which
atmosphere is churned by
convection
22. For a comprehensive EIA study,
it is to be conducted for:
A. The whole year
B. Any three seasons including
monsoon
C. Three seasons excluding
monsoon
D. The worst season
24. In initial environmental
examination, the following are
considered:
A. No quantitative data
B. Primary data
C. Secondary data
D. On site data for at least a
season
25. Which of the following forest
types is most widespread in India?
A. Tropical evergreen forest
B. Tropical deciduous forest
C. Temperate forest
D. Scrub forest
26. The presence of
pneumatophores is seen in:
A. Desert plants
B. Climbers and lianas
C. Trees of tropical moist forests
D. Mangroves
27. Ramsar convention is related to
conservation of:
A. Tiger
B. Elephants
C. Crop genetic diversity
D. Wetlands
28. A significant effect of climate
change on account of global
warming on terrestrial plants will
be on:
A. Stomatal mechanism
B. Amino acid composition of
cereal grains
C. Phenology
D. Bark formation in trees
29. A tree, which is popular in
social forestry programme in India,
is:
A. Shorea robusta
B. Ailanthus excelsa
C. Cedrus deodara
D. Callistemon lanceolatus
30. The great Indian Rhino has its
natural home in:
A. Kaziranga National Park
B. Corbett National Park
C. Sunderbans
D. Kanha National Park
31. According to the Botanical
Survey of India, the total number
of plant species in India is about:
A. 45,000
B. 75,000
C. 17,000
D. 30,000
32. Assertion (A): Bt cotton is a
transgenic crop which has been
introduced iri India, but is being
opposed on environmental
grounds. Reason (R): CrylAc protein
in Bt cotton has been found to be
toxic and allergenic to human
beings.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true
33. Oxygen toxicity (in humans) is
caused by:
A. Inhalation of molecular oxygen
B. Generation of free radicals
C. Interactions of singlet oxygen
with membrane
D. None of the above
34. C 2F 3 C1 3 gas:
A. absorbs ultraviolet radiations
B. affects troposphere ozone
C. forms aerosols in stratosphere
D. absorbs infrared radiations
35. Which of the following shows
bioaccumulation and contaminate
food chains?
A. Pesticides
B. Polychlorinated biphenyls
C. PAN
D. All of the above
36. Removal of which of the
following impurities from
contaminated water requires the of
coagulants:
A. Colloidal impurities
B. dissolved solids
C. micro organisms
D. all of the above
38. The most efficient method of
biodegradable urban solid waste
management is:
A. Landfills
B. Pelletisation
C. Gasification
D. Composting
39. Pollutants in soil can be broken
down by micro organisms. The
process is called:
A. Probiotics
B. Bioremediation
C. Bioaugmentation
D. None of the above
40. A thermodynamic function of
state which is constant during a
reversible isobaric isothermal
process is:
A. Geothermal potential
B. Thermodynamic efficiency
C. Enthalpy
D. Gibb's free energy
41. t - statistic is useful for testing:
A. Variances
B. Overall goodness of fit of a
regression model
C. null hypothesis for a regression
coefficient
D. constancy of the mean
43. 1 metric ton of average coal in
energy terms is equivalent to:
A. 2000 cubic feet of natural gas
B. 24000 cubic feet of natural gas
C. 1.5 barrels of oil
D. 2.0 barrels of oil
45. In marine environment
Carbonate Compensation Depth
(CCD) is defined as depth at which:
A. Carbonate begins to dissolve
B. Carbonate begins to precipitate
C. Carbonate begins to precipitate
D. Bicarbonate begins to dissolve
46. In an idealised Magneto
hydrodynamic power plant, the
maximum power output varies with
fuel velocity (u) as:
A. U
B. U 2
C. U 3
D. U 1/2
48. In humid climate, weathering
of various types "of rocks occurs.
Identify the correct sequence
in order of decreasing weathering:
A. Basalt > Dunite > Granite
B. Basalt > Granite > Dunite
C. Dunite > Granite > Basalt
D. Dunite > Basalt > Granite
49. Match list I and list II and
select the correct answer using
codes given below the lists
List I List II
(a) Ozone depletion (i) Basel
convention
(b) CO-, reduction (ii) Kyoto
Protocol
(c) Sustainable development (iii) Rio
Summit lopment
(d) Hazardous waste (iv) Montreal
Protocol Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
B. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
C. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
50. The lion - tailed macaque is
endemic to:
A. Andaman and Nicobar islands
B. Lakshadweep
C. Nilgiri
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Answers
1   2   3   4   5   6   7   9  10
A  C   B   D  A   C  B   B   A
11 12 13 15 16 17 18 19 20
B    C    D  A   D   D   D  B  B
21 22 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C    A   B   B   C   D   A   A   A
31 32 33 34 35 36 38 39 40
A    A   B   B   D  B  D  B   D
41 43 45 46 48 49 50
B    D   A  C   A   B  A

West Bengal Primary Teachers Eligibility Test: Environmental science multiple choice questions/answers (Set-1)

Environmental science study materials:
1. Which of the following
statement about Fjord is incorrect?
A. Most Fjords were formed due to
raise in sea level after the melting
of Pleistocene ice
B. It is an emergent coast that was
originally submerged
C. It is a long narrow inlet of the
sea bound by steep slopes
D. It is a glaciated valley that has
been inundated by the sea

3. Residence time of water
molecule in the ocean is:
A. 3.5 years
B. 3.5 million years
C. 35 years
D. 35000 years

4. Hyperplasia means:
A. excessive motility of a muscle
B. Voracious eating
C. Abnormal increase in number of
cells
D. An increase in size of a cell

5. Carbon dioxide absorbs radiation
in the range:
A. 5.5 and 7 microns
B. Greater than 27 microns
C. 8 to 13 microns
D. 0.1 to 30 microns

6. Sodium is usually estimated by
which of the following analytical
technique:
A. Flame Photometry
B. Coulometry
C. High pressure liquid
chromotography
D. Visible spectrophotometry

7. Which combination of the
following elements constitutes a
major portion of earth crust:
A. Oxygen and Silicon
B. Oxygen and Iron
C. Silicon and Iron
D. Aluminium and Iron

8. Assertion (A):
Chlorofluorocarbons deplete ozone.
Reason (R): These compounds
contain Chlorine, Bromine and
Fluorine.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

10. Maximum Density of water is
at:
A. 4°C
B. 0°C
C. 100°C
D. 272°C

11. The cause of lung cancer
Mesothalemia is:
A. Asbestos
B. Arsenic
C. Mercury
D. Chromium

12. Which of the following pattern
of evolution accounts for all the
diversity present on earth today?
A .Microevolution
B. Megaevolution
C. Biodiversity
D. Speciation

13. Group of individuals of the
same species that share common
attributes are called:
A. Community
B. Population
C. Ecotype
D. Society

14. Which one of the following is
the correct food chain?
A. Algae -> Daphnia -> Dragon Fly
Nymph -» Newt -» Grass Snake
B. Daphnia -» Dragon Fly Nymph ->
Newt -» Algae -> Grass Snake
C. Grass Snake -> Newt -» Dragon
Fly Nymph Daphnia Algae
D. Newt -» Grass Snake -» Dragon
Fly Nymph -» Algae -> Daphnia

16 . Assertion (A): Monsoonal
rainfall is very high both on the
west coast and northeast India.
Reason (R): The duration of
monsoon over west coast and
northeast India is longer than
other parts of India.
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

19. Which one of the following
statements regarding El-NINO is
NOT true?
A. It is an extension of equatorial
current towards the western coast
of South America.
B. It is an occasional warm current
leading to an increase of about
10°C in subsurface water
temperature.
C. It develops as temporary
replacement of usual cold Peruvian
Current.
D. It causes an increase in plankton
thriving in cold Peruvian current.

20. The process of alluviation
indicates:
A .Removal of particles from the
upper layer of soil
B. Removal of particles from lower
layer of soil
C. Deposition of soil particles in
sub-soil layer
D. Transportation of soil particles
in the B-horizon

21. Which one of the following is
the cleanest source of energy?
A. Hydropower
B. Fossil fuel
C. Nuclear power
D. Wind energy

22. Match the items in List - I with
List - II and select the correct
answer using codes given below:
List I List - II
(a) CFC (i) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
(b) C0 2 (ii) Global Warming
(c) BOD (iii) Ozone depletion
(d) MIC (iv) Water pollution Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

23. The global warming efficiency
of a CFC molecule in relation to a
CO-, molecule is higher by a factor
of:
A. 125
B. 25
C. 20,000
D. 1500

24. Arsenic problem in India is
primarily due to:
A. Overexploitation of arsenopyrite
in the hinterland
B. Overexploitation of coal in Bihar
and Bengal
C. Overexploitation of ground
water in the affected areas
D. Overexploitation of surface
water in the affected areas

25. Acid rain is caused by:
A. CO and CO2 ,
B. SO 2 ,and 0 2
C. S0 2 and NO" 2
D. NO 2 and O 2

26. What will be the outcome of
Eutrophication of surface waters?
A. Overproduction of biomass
B. Decrease in nitrogen
concentration
C. Decrease in phosphorus
concentration
D. Decrease in both nitrogen and
phosphorus concentrations.

27. Assertion (A): Negatively
charged soil particles attract
positive ions like Ca++ and Mg ++
Reason (R): The attraction keeps the
ions at soil level for ready
availability.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

29. Cost Benefit analysis is
required in case of proposals
involving clearance of forest land:
A. Greater than 1Oha but less than
20ha
B. Greater than 20ha
C. Greater than 5ha but less than
1Oha
D. Greater than 40ha only

30. Ecologically sensitive and
important areas, breeding and
spawning grounds of marine life
etc., are categorized in coastal
Regulation Zone as:
A. CRZ - IV
B. CRZ - II
C. CRZ - III
D. CRZ - I

31. A management tool comprising
a systematic, periodic and objective
evaluation of how well an
environmental organization,
management and equipment are
performing is known as:
A. Raw material balance
B. Input - output analysis
C. Acturities at site
D. Environmental audit

33. Match the items in List - I with
List - II and select the correct
answer using codes given below:
List - I List - II
• (a) Montreal Conven- (i) Ozone
depletion tion
(b) Rio - Summit (ii) Greenhouse
gas
(c) Ramsah Conven- (iii) Convention
on tion Biological diversity
(d) Kyoto Protocol (iv) Wetlands
convention
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

34. The least preferred technique
in the disposal of municipal solid
waste is:
A. incineration
B. composting
C. land filling
D. bricketting

35. Bacterial decomposition of
biological material under aerobic
condition is:
A. Fermentation
B. Fertilization
C. Contamination
D. Composting

36. When you go for shopping,
what are you expected to do to
save environment?
A. Shop for products that have as
little packaging as possible.
B. In any store, use a bag even it is
not needed.
C. Do not reduce the frequency of
shopping.
D. Buy paper towels and napkins.

38. In the analysis of 15 water
samples, Ca and Mg gave a
correlation of +0.95. It means:
A. Ca came from soil and Mg came
from biota
B. Ca and Mg both came from the
same type of water
C. Ca and Mg are both cogenetic
D. Ca and Mg came from different
sources.

39. If a piece of metal weighs
10.2g in air, 8.6g in water and
7.8g in another liquid, then what
will be the specific gravity of the
liquid?
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 3.0

40. The geometric mean of the
numbers 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 is:
A. 12
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32

41. The correlation coefficient
between the variables X, Y as given
in the following table:
X 1 3 4 6 8 9 11 14
Y 1 2 4 4 5 7 8 9 is:
A. -0.977
B. -0.517
C. +0.977
D. +0.217

42. Climatic stress is caused by
insufficient and/or excessive
regime of:
A. Temperature
B. Humidity
C. Solar radiation
D. All the above

43. The chemical that is used to
ripen mangoes is:
A .Calcium sulphide
B. Calcium carbide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Calcium chloride
44. Which two of the following
statements regarding ISO 14000
series of standards are true?
Answer choosing the code given
below:
(i) ISO 14000 standards are based
on a principle assumption that
better environmental management
will lead to better environmental
performance.
(ii) ISO M°C/u standards are
regulatory standards developed by
ISO
(iii) ISO 14000 standards are
market driven and therefore are
based on voluntary involvement of
all interests in the market place.
(iv) The adoption of ISO 14000 is a
one time commitment
A (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)

45. Organisms that generate energy
using light are:
A. oligotrophs
B. chaemorganotrophs
C. chaemolithotrophs
D. photoautotrophs

47. Land use pattern is usually
studied by the following technique:
A. Aerial photography
B. Satellite imaging
C. Satellite imaging and G. I. S.
D. Satellite imaging, G. I. S. and G.
P. S.

48. To conserve coral reefs the
Govt, of India declared one of the
following as Marine Park:
A. Gulf of Kutch
B. Lakshadweep islands
C. Gulf of Mannar
D. Andaman Islands

49. Which one of the following
does not contribute to
conservation of water?
A Waste water treatment
B. Waste land development
C. Water shed protection
D. Rain water harvesting

50. Particle size in soil can be
classified as clay: 1-4 micron. Silt:
4-62 micron. Sand: 62-1000
micron; Boulder: >1000 micron. It
is hence correct to suggest that in
nature particle size distribution
follows:
A. Binomial distribution
B. Lognormal distribution
C. Linear distribution
D. Normal distribution
Answers
1   3  4   5   6   7   8   10
D  C  C  A   A   A   C   A
11 12 13 14 16 19 20
B    C    C   A  B   A  C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 29 30
D    A   A   C   C   A   A   A   D
31 33 34 35 36 38 39 40
D    C   D   A   A   D   C  C
41 42 43 44 45 47 48 49 50
C    D    B  A   D   B   B   B  D